What relationship CANNOT be used to prove that AABC is congruent to ADEF?


Help please!!!

Answer:

$34.40

Step-by-step explanation:

26.46 ×30% = 7.94

26.46+7.94= 34.4

Answer:

2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2.5%

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert fraction (ratio) 2 / 80 Answer: 2.5%

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It would be greater than 100 and 150. 250% of 44 is negative because 100% of 44 is 0.

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i dont know

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer would be P

Answer:

408

Step-by-step explanation:

12×34

12×34

48+360

408

Answer:

408

Step-by-step explanation:

you put 12 on top and you put 34 on the bottom then you have 12x 34 then you multiply it

Answer:

The situation you are describing can be written as y=2x, or in this case t=2f, for every fragrance purchased there are 2 ounces of lotion that are given. Since the ounces of fragrance are not shown in this question, we can only make the graph on the ounces of lotion for every fragarance purchased. The points of the graph represent that for every fragrance bought, there is twice the amount of that in ounces of lotion. In summary,  the rule is t=2f where t would equal purchases of fragrance and f would equal the ounces of lotion.

(If there is any more you would like to add to the question I can answer that.)

Answer:

[tex]\huge\red{\mid{\underline{\overline{\textbf{ANSWER}}}\mid}}[/tex]

Its A)

For Sure.

Its Intersecting The X- axis At X= -2 and x=6

Answer:

0.068 or 6.826%

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to calculate the proportion of disks that are defective, we need to divide the number of defective disks by the total amount of disks that were chosen in the given sample. Using the data provided this would be the following calculation...

37 / 542 = 0.068

We can multiply this by 100 to get the percentage value

0.068 * 100 = 6.826%

Therefore, roughly 6.826% of the entire disk population would be defective.

Answer:

See below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that

                              tanA + tan B

tan (A + B)     =     ---------------------                       

                               1 - tanAtanB

Substituting for A + B

tan (A + B) = tan pi/4 = 1.

            tanA + tan B

So        ------------------   =    1

             1 - tanAtanB

Therefore   tanA + tan B =   1 - tanAtanB.

Answer:

-1.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Factor the numerator and denominators and cancel the common factors.

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

The median is the number in the middle of a data set.

For example, in this question 7 is in the middle of the data set, thus making it the median.

The result is 85 divided by 2 equals 42.5.

So, when we divide 85 by 2, the quotient is 42, and there is a remainder of 1.

To divide 85 by 2, we need to perform the division operation step by step.

Divide the first digit of the dividend (85) by the divisor (2). The first digit of the dividend is 8.

8 ÷ 2 = 4

Write down the result (4) as the first digit of the quotient.

Multiply the divisor (2) by the quotient digit (4) and subtract the result from the first two digits of the dividend (85).

The result is the remainder.

85 - (2 * 4) = 85 - 8 = 77

Bring down the next digit of the dividend (7) to the remainder (77) to form a new dividend (77).

Divide the first digit of the new dividend (77) by the divisor (2).

77 ÷ 2 = 38 with a remainder of 1

Write down the quotient digit (38) as the second digit of the quotient.

Since there are no more digits to bring down, the division process is complete.

Now, we have the quotient and the remainder:

85 ÷ 2 = 42 with a remainder of 1

i.e. 85 ÷ 2 = 42.5

So, when we divide 85 by 2, the quotient is 42, and there is a remainder of 1.

To learn more on division click:

brainly.com/question/21416852

#SPJ6

Answer: A

Step-by-step explanation:

You already chose the answer lol

Answer:

B. A piece of copy paper.

Answer:

No its not a Right Triangle

Answer:

321.68feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following

Top of the house above the sea level  = 150feet = opposite

Angle of elevation = 25°

Required

Distance from the boat to the base of the house(adjacent)

Using the SOH CAH TOA identity

tan theta = opp/adj

tan 25 = 150/d

d = 150/tan25

d = 150/0.4663

d = 321.68

Hence the required distance is  321.68feet

Answer:

Since MA ≠ TH, hence MATH is not a rectangle

Step-by-step explanation:

To prove that quadrilateral MATH, M (-4,-1) A(-3,2). T(3,0), H(2-3) is a rectangle, we need to get the length of each sides and show that MA =TH and MH = TA

For MA:

M (-4,-1) A(-3,2)

MA = √(2+1)²+(3+4)²

MA = √(3)²+(7)²

MA = √9+49

MA =√58

For TH:

T(3,0), H(2-3)

TH = √(-3-0)²+(2-3)²

TH = √(-3)²+(-1)²

TH = √9+1

TH =√10

For TH:

M(-4,-1), H(2-3)

MH = √(-3+1)²+(2+4)²

MH = √(-2)²+(6)²

MH = √4+36

MH =√40

For TA:

T(3,0), A(-3,2)

TA = √(2-0)²+(-3-3)²

TA = √(2)²+(-6)²

TA = √4+36

TA =√40

Since MA ≠ TH, hence MATH is not a rectangle

Answer:

3rd choice, 3rd one down.

Explanation:

That is a pyramid, not a prism.

the third one i think

Answer:

-12, -12

Step-by-step explanation:

Both numbers are negative, they add to -24, 2 negatives make positive (-12 x -12 = 144)

Answer:

? = 58°

Step-by-step explanation:

Angles subtended by tangents and radii of a circle are supplementary, so

? + 122° = 180° ( subtract 122° from both sides )

? = 58°

Answer:

always

Step-by-step explanation:

so if it isn't it will be an acute or an obtuse

Answer:

6...................

Set up an equation:

3x - x = 28

Simplify:

2x = 28

Divide both sides by 2

X = 14

3(14) = 42

The numbers are 42 and 14

The rectangular form of the given equation r= 2 / 7sinθ−cosθ which is in polar form is  7x - y = 2 and the slope-intercept form is y = 7x - 2

To convert from polar form to rectangular form we simply take the following steps:

The slope-intercept form is,

y = mx +c

where m is the slope made and c is the intercept both made by the straight line.

In the given question let's first rearrange it,

r × (7sinθ − cosθ) = 2

Multiplying the term (7sinθ−cosθ) with r we get,

7rsinθ - rcosθ = 2

Now we will follow the steps discussed above which is we will put x and y respectively in place of rsinθ and rcosθ.

7x - y = 2

So, the slope-intercept form will be,

y = 7x - 2

Therefore, the rectangular form is 7x - y = 2 and the slope-intercept form is y = 7x - 2.

To know more about the polar form and how to convert it to rectangular form click here - brainly.com/question/27412064

#SPJ2

Let's simplify

Remember that rsinØ is x an rcosØ=y

Rectangle form or slope intercept form