Determine the are of the rectangle below

Answer:

i think it is C

Step-by-step explanation: hope this helps

Answer:

tnyu

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

In a problem using the distributive property, think of the minus sign as a negative symbol for the number which follows it, rather than the operation of subtraction. Apply the rules for multiplying positive and negative numbers, then insert the correct sign, + or –, between the final terms of your answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:64x64x64

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

edg

To find the next time when Bus A and Bus B leave the station at the same time, we need to find the first common multiple of the time intervals of the two buses.

The time intervals for Bus A are 75, 150, 225, 300, and so on.

The time intervals for Bus B are 15, 30, 45, 60, 75, 90, and so on.

The first common multiple of 75 and 15 is 75, so the next time when Bus A and Bus B leave the station at the same time will be 75 minutes after their last common departure time, which was 6:00 a.m.

Therefore, the next time when Bus A and Bus B will leave the bus station at the same time is 7:15 a.m., which is option B.

Answer:

L

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

51.80

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

10 percent chance because there's 10 tiles in total and percentages have to add up to 100

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

nice its a rick roll but i didnt fall for it

Answer:

To  do this equation, we could put it in terms of algebra, lets say the large chocolate bars are represented by L and the small bars by S

April

4S + 6L = $16.50

Bill

4S + 3L = $11.25

Looking at this, we can see that the difference between the two purchases is that Bill bought three less large chocolate bars, this means the difference in total cost equals three large chocolate bars. Using this knowledge.

$16.50 minus $11.25 = $5.25

$5.25 = Three Large Bars

Divide this by three to get the cost of one large bar.

$1.75 is the cost of one single large bar.

Step-by-step explanation:

credits to:

lolarodgers274

Answer:

Cost of one large chocolate bar = $ 1.75

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the cost of one small chocolate bars = $ s

Let the cost of one large bars = $ l

April:

Cost of 4 small bars = 4*s = 4s

Cost of 6 large bars = 6*l = 6l

Total cost of 4 small bars and 6 large bars = $ 16.50

4s + 6l = 16.50 ------------------(I)

Bill:

Cost of 4 small bars = 4*s = 4s

Cost of 3 large bars = 3*l = 3l

Total cost of 4 small bars and 3 large bars = $ 11.25

4s + 3l = 11.25  ------------------(II)

Subtract II form equation (I)

(I)              4s + 6l = 16.50

(II)            4s +  3l = 11.25   (-)

             -       -        -        

                      3l =  5.25         {Divide both sides by 3}

                         l = 5.25/3

l = 1.75

Cost of one large chocolate bar = $ 1.75

Answer:

Rig

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

part A = 74    part B = 27  part C = 85.33

Step-by-step explanation:

Part A

you do 34 - 12 = 20 then you do 9 * 6 =  54 then you take 20 and 54 and add them together 20 + 54 = 74

Part B

you do 14 * -2  = 28 then you do -3 /3 = 1 then you subtract 28 and 1 = 27

Part C

you do 56 / 3 = 18.67 then you do 44 * 2 = 88+16 =104 then you subtract 18.67 and 104 = 85.33

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation for C would be 52 - 18 = x.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

For D, you would have to ADD 52 to 18.

Answer:

she did 60 x 60 x 60 x 60 when she only needed to do 60 x 60

* maybe brainliest??

Answer:

A ray has one endpoint and continues forever in the opposite direction.

Step-by-step explanation:

A ray is a part of a line that has one starting point but no end point, so it continues forever. Therefore, the answer is: a ray has one endpoint and continues forever in the opposite direction.

The statement " A ray has one endpoint and continues forever in the opposite direction" is correct.

The definition of ray in math is that it is a part of a line that has a fixed starting point but no endpoint. It can extend infinitely in one direction. Since a ray has no end point, we can’t measure its length.

Ray can extend infinitely in one direction. On its way to infinity, a ray may pass through more than one point. When naming a ray, it is denoted by drawing a small ray on top of the name of the ray.

Therefore, the statement " A ray has one endpoint and continues forever in the opposite direction" is correct.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2  Ms. Salgato doesn’t want to spend more than $375 that in symbols can be expressed as [tex]\leq 375[/tex].

$100 is a constant so it doesn’t multiplies the x. The hour are instead a variable so $40 multiplies the x

so the final answer is

C  [tex]100+40x\leq 375[/tex]

9 no less than $455 can expressed as [tex]\geq 455[/tex]

if we solve the inequality [tex]245+d\geq 455[/tex]

we have

[tex]d \geq 210[/tex]

so the final answer is A

13

$130 is a constant, while $3 mulplied a variable. No more means [tex]\leq 190[/tex]

we can now write and solve an inequality:

[tex]130+3x\leq 190 \\ 3x\leq 60 \\ x\leq 20[/tex]

so the answer is C : 20

14

$9 multiplies a variable, a minimum can be expressed as [tex]\geq[/tex]

so the final answer is

B : [tex]9h\geq 81[/tex]

Answer:

2 = C

9 = C

13 = C

14 = B

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

370.2

Step-by-step explanation:

The 4 semi-circles make two regular circles with a radius of 6 (half the diameter) making them each about 113.1. Together, they are 226.2. the square is 12 x 12 = 144. 144+226.2=370.2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A translation is when a geometric figure slides up, down, left or right on the coordinate plane. The figure moves its location, but doesn't change its orientation. It also doesn't change its size or shape. When you perform translations, you slide a figure left or right, up or down

basically, everything is just moving around same distance and same direction

Answer: 6

Step-by-step explanation:

The absolute value of a positive number is just the number.

And the absolute number of a negative is its positive.

So absolute value of -25 is 25

Absolute value of -13 is 13

Absolute value of 6 is 6

Absolute value of 19 is 19

So the lowest absolute value is 6

6, because 6 is the amount of numbers away from 0.

Answer:

1) 20    2) 8

Step-by-step explanation:

1) 2+3x=62  opposite angle theorem

x=20

2) 90+40+6x+2=180

6x=48

x=8

Answer:

Part A

12.6 - 0.4x = y

Part B

x = 31.5

Step-by-step explanation:

Part B

12.6 ÷ 0.4 = 31.5 hours

y=12.6-0.4x is the required linear equation and it takes 31.5 hours to completely evaporate the water in glass.

Two or more expressions with an Equal sign is called as Equation.

Given that in the beginning of the experiment, the water level is 12.6 cm.

The water level in a glass decreases 0.4 cm each hour

Let x represent time, in hours, elapsed since the beginning of the experiment and let y represent the water level, in centimeters.

We need to find the linear function, using x and y from above, that determines the water level at a given time, in hours, after the experiment begins.

y=12.6-0.4x

We need to find how long will it take to for all of the water to evaporate.

12.6/0.4 = 31.5 hours

Hence, y=12.6-0.4x is the required linear function and it takes 31.5 hours to completely evaporate the water in glass.

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Answer:

The Corner Store sells pb at $0.16 per ounce

Minnie's Market sells pb at $0.14 per ounce

Food Now! sell pb at $0.15 per ounce

And the best place to buy would be Minnie's Market.

Step-by-step explanation:

TCS: $1.28/8=$0.16

MM: $1.96/14=$0.14

FN: $3.30/22=$0.15

Step-by-step explanation:

in a rect.

b:l=1:4

let,

"x" & "4x"

perimeter=20cm

thus,

2(l+b)=20

x+4x=20/2

5x=10

x=10/5

x=2

also

4x=4×2

=8

also ,area=

l×b

=8×2

=16

thus,area=16

Answer:

I believe it's 234

Step-by-step explanation:

A=2(wl+hl+hw)=2·(3·15+4·15+4·3)=234

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

So you have to remember, area is LxW - Lenth x Width.

Also remember base is bxh - Base x height.

T he rectangle has a area already which is 3x3 = 6 but remember you also have to find the base. So,

you do Area = 50.4 yd²

Step-by-step explanation:

Base dimension of container = 4⅕ by 1⅓ yd

Array: 3 * 3 containers without space

Area covered by the containers

First, it'll be assumed that the container has a rectangular base.

The dimension of the base is measured out as follows:

Length, L = 4⅕ yd

Width, W = 1⅓ yd

Note that this can also be interchanged.

Next, is to calculate the area of 1 container..

Area = 4⅕ yd * 1⅓ yd

Convert mixed fractions to improper fraction

Area = 21/5 * 4/3 yd²

Area = 84/15 yd²

Area = 28/5 yd²

Area = 5.6 yd²

Next, is to calculate the area of the 3 by 3 containers.

Given that the container formed a 3 by 3 array;

This means that there 3 * 3 containers

3 * 3 = 9 containers.

Area of the 9 containers = 9 * Area of 1 container.

Area = 9 * 5.6 yd²

Area = 50.4 yd²

the area covered by the containers is 50.4 yd²

Answer:

measure

Step-by-step explanation: