If Tyree now needs four cups of coffee to receive the same effect then it is an example of drug tolerance.
What is drug tolerance?Drug tolerance is a physiological phenomenon where an individual must increase the amount of drug to have the same effect.
Drug tolerance is caused by the presence of more receptors in the brain that need to bind to the active principle of the drug.
In conclusion, if Tyree now needs four cups of coffee to receive the same effect it is an example of drug tolerance.
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Tyree is encountering a possibility of Drug tolerance. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is Drug toleration?Drug toleration may be characterized as a pharmacological concept that transpires when the body acquires employed a medicine so that either more medicine is required or distinct medicine is needed to display the same influence.
Drug tolerance is an action that is adjudicated by several receptors which are present throughout the body. But the receptors of the central nervous system control or supervise the whole system's effectiveness.
Thus, it is well described above.
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In the neighborhood where you grew up, few people had computers and most people felt that the medical establishment didn't care about them. As a consequence, they didn't seek much health information or trust what they heard. Which theory best describes patterns such as that
The social judgment theory best describes patterns seen in the the neighborhood.
What is the social judgement theory?The social judgment theory proposes that the an individual's view of a situation or condition is dependent on the individuals cognitive map.
The individual judgement falls under three zones:
zone of positions we acceptzone of positions we neither accept nor rejectzone of positions we rejectThe members of the community displayed these zones in their decision-making regarding healthcare.
Therefore, the members of the community displays the patterns of social judgement theory.
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The nurse is teaching a class on pain management strategies. Which client statement requires additional teaching
The client statement that requires additional teaching is that persistent pain is a warning in the body that alerts the sympathetic nervous system.
Who is a nurse?The function of a nurse in a health organization such as hospitals, clinics, etc is to take care of the patients.
In this case, the client statement that requires additional teaching is that persistent pain is a warning in the body that alerts the sympathetic nervous system.
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In general, the richest sources of vitamin E are Multiple Choice yellow and orange vegetables. citrus fruits. plant oils. refined grain products.
In general, the richest sources of vitamin E are plant oils and is denoted as option C.
What is Vitamin E?This is a type of fat soluble compound which acts as antioxidants and protect the body from free radicals.
Almost all the types of plant oils tested positive to the presence of Vitamin E which makes it the richest source of the vitamin.
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An adult who follows a 2000-kcal Healthy U.S.-Style Dietary Pattern should consume ______ cups of dairy equivalents per day.
An adult who follows a 2000-kcal Healthy U.S.-Style Dietary Pattern should consume three cups of dairy equivalents per day.
What is diary?It should be noted that diary include food like milk, cheese, yogurt, cheese, etc. The products are gotten from cows.
In this case, an adult who follows a 2000-kcal Healthy U.S.-Style Dietary Pattern should consume three cups of dairy equivalents per day.
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if direct pressure over the bleeding site does not control external bleeding, what should you do
When direct pressure over the bleeding site does not control external bleeding, one should apply direct pressure to the artery.
What is artery?It should be noted that arteries are the blood vessels that deliver oxygen rich blood from the heart to other body parts.
In this case, when direct pressure over the bleeding site does not control external bleeding, one should apply direct pressure to the artery.
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Which nursing action is most important to decrease the risk of postoperative complications in a child with sickle cell anemia
Jan eats 2,000 calories daily and expends 1,500 calories. Based on energy balance, how will Jan's weight be affected
Jan weight increases because he take more calories than required or needed by his body.
How will Jan's weight be affected?Jan eats 2,000 calories daily and expends 1,500 calories. According to his calorie intake, Jan's weight will increase because about 500 calories remain unused which will store in the form of fats in the body and this will leads to increase in weight.
So we can conclude that Jan weight increases because he take more calories than required or needed by his body.
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If the AED came equipped with adult AED pads only, Vickie should not use them. Instead, she should call for someone to bring pediatric AED pads and continue CPR until the new pads arrive. True or false
The information given regarding the automated external defibrillator is false.
What is AED?It should be noted that AED means automated external defibrillator that's used to help those experiencing sudden cardiac arrest.
In this case, she should not vall for someone to bring pediatric AED pads and continue CPR until the new pads arrive but rather use the one that came with it.
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A health care profession that is certified may find the scope of practice for that profession in the __________ practice act. Group of answer choices ambulatory care facilities nursing hospital medical
A health care profession that is certified may find the scope of practice for that profession in the medical practice act.
What is considered a health care profession?Healthcare Professional means any member of the medical profession may prescribe, administer or dispense a medicinal product to a patient that needs the medicine.
So we can conclude that a health care profession that is certified may find the scope of practice for that profession in the medical practice act.
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A nurse is admitting a client to the palliative unit and discussing advanced directives. Which statement made by the client leads the nurse to believe the client requires clarification around advanced directives
The statement that is made by the client that led to the nurse to believe that client requires clarification is "This will stop my daughter-in-law from putting me in a home".
What are advanced directives?Advanced directives are documents written and signed with the full knowledge of the patient or patient's relatives concerning the their health care decisions made about them ahead of time.
When such a statement as "This will stop my daughter-in-law from putting me in a home", being made by a client it shows they are yet to understand the meaning of advanced directives.
Therefore the nurse is meant to clarify them further.
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Which clinical manifestation would be exhibited by a client following a hemorrhagic stroke of the right hemisphere
The clinical manifestation would be exhibited by a client following a hemorrhagic stroke of the right hemisphere is a left sided weakness or paralysis and sensory impairment.
What is hemorrhagic stroke?It should be noted that hemorrhagic stroke occurs when the blood from the artery begins bleeding into the brain.
In this case, the clinical manifestation would be exhibited by a client following a hemorrhagic stroke of the right hemisphere is a left sided weakness or paralysis and sensory impairment.
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The nurse is reviewing lifestyle changes with a client who is attempting to reduce the risk for colon and prostate cancer. Which statement by the client requires further follow-up by the nurse
The statement by the client that requires further follow-up by the nurse when reviewing lifestyle changes with a client who is attempting to reduce the risk for colon and prostrate cancer is "I will stay at home to ensure that I can remain close to the toilet."
What is the usefulness of follow up on the client?Follow up help the nurse to know how the treatment of the illness is effecting on the client and this can help to know the next move.
Therefore, for colon and prostrate cancer, when the client says he will stay at home to ensure that I can remain close to the toilet means the treatment is not effecting yet.
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a client has just returned from surgery after undergoing a lumbar laminectomy. which of the following would be most important to do when positioning the client in bed?
The person should make use of the logrolling motion when changing position.
What is lumbar laminectomy?The surgical procedure called lumbar laminectomy involves the removal of the lower pats of a person's vertebral column so that the person's spinal cord can have more space.
If a person has jus finished lumbar laminectomy, then the person should make use of the logrolling motion when changing position.
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What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for thyroid nodules
Answer:
Ultrasound. This imaging technique uses high-frequency sound waves to produce images of your thyroid gland. A thyroid ultrasound provides the best information about the shape and structure of nodules. Doctors may use it to distinguish cysts from solid nodules or to determine if multiple nodules are present.
A client is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/mL (140 mcmol/L). Which finding would be expected as a result of this laboratory result
The thing that will be expected as a result of this laboratory result is slurred speech.
What is slurred speech?It should be noted that slurred speech can be due to intoxication, oral anaesthesia, etc.
In this case, the client is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin to control seizures. In this case, the thing that will be expected as a result of this laboratory result is slurred speech.
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Increasing the amount of weight for your exercises increases the demands made upon your body. Group of answer choices True False
Mrs. Paterson is concerned about the deductibles and co-payments associated with original medicare. What can you tell her about medigap as an option to address this concern?.
Option:
a. If Mrs. Paterson applies during the Medigap open enrollment period, she will have to undergo a medical review to determine if she has a pre-existing condition that would increase the premium for a Medigap policy.
b. Medigap plans help beneficiaries cover coinsurance, co-payments, and/or deductibles for medically necessary services.
c. All costs not covered by Medicare are covered by some Medigap plans. d. Medigap plans are not sold by private companies and are a government insurance product.
Answer:
Medigap plans help beneficiaries cover coinsurance, co-payments, and/or deductibles for medically necessary services. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is role of the medigap?A group of supplemental insurance plans known as Medigap are designed to work with Medicare. These are private health insurance plans that assist in covering some of the extra expenses incurred by conventional Medicare, such as co-insurance.
Beneficiaries of Medigap policies can use their benefits to pay for co-insurance, copayments, and/or deductibles for essential medical services. Because of this, Mrs. Paterson might not give a hoot about the deductibles and co-pays connected with Original Medicare.
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Answer: Medigap plans help beneficiaries cover Original Medicare benefits, but they coordinate with Original Medicare coverage.
Explanation: Medigap plans do NOT cover all costs not coverred by medicare, are sold by private comanies and if she enrolls during her medigap OEP she will not have underwriting.
For each macronutrient, the _______ provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.
The Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.
What are macronutrients?The macronutrients are those nutrients that the body requires in large quantities. They are very important such that if they are not consumed appreciable, a remarkable deficiency may result.
Hence, For each macronutrient, the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges provide a range of intake associated with good health and a reduced risk of chronic diseases while providing for recommended intakes of essential nutrients.
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adjustment disorder treatment medication
Answer:
Medications are used to lessen some of the symptoms of adjustment disorders, such as insomnia, depression, and anxiety. These medications include: benzodiazepines, such as lorazepam (Ativan) and alprazolam (Xanax) nonbenzodiazepine anxiolytics, such as gabapentin (Neurontin)
Symptoms: Depression (mood); Anxiety
The drugs that could be used to treat adjustment disorder are lorazepam and alprazolam.
What is adjustment disorder?The term adjustment disorder refers to a condition that is induced by stress which could lead to certain severe problems such a breakdown in relationships.
As such, some of the drugs that could be used to treat adjustment disorder are lorazepam and alprazolam.
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The ability for a muscle to work against a resistance for an extended period of time is.
A muscle's endurance is its capacity to contract repeatedly against a fixed resistance over an extended length of time.
Tearm endurance:
The capacity for enduring difficulty or adversity, especially the capacity for long-term stress-inducing effort or exercise, such as a marathon runner's endurance. 2: the act of enduring many sufferings or an instance of doing so. 3: persistence of the play's significance, permanency.
Types:
The types of endurance are aerobic endurance,
anaerobic endurance : Anaerobic exercise is a type of exercise that breaks down glucose in the body without using oxygen; anaerobic means "without oxygen".
speed endurance :is the ability to prolong the amount of time where a near maximal speed can be maintained.
strength endurance :Strength endurance is the specific form of strength displayed in activities which require a relatively long duration of muscle tension with minimal decrease in efficiency"
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What bedside monitoring parameters are used to assess for adequacy of oxygenation and effectiveness of ventilation?
Answer:
Pulse oximetry and capnography are used to ensure that appropriate oxygenation and ventilation are achieved and maintained. Assessments of driving pressure, transpulmonary pressure, and the pressure-volume loop are performed to ensure that adequate PEEP is applied and excess distending pressure is minimized.
Explanation:
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a nonpunitive approach that allows for situations in which a
nurse recklessly or willfully disregarded policies intended to protect the patient.
The nurse's
is statement of the nonnegotiable ethical
The bulk of ethical problems and instances for ethics consultation that nurses call for are for patient care objectives. When a patient's prognosis is bad, this may involve managing the patient's pain level or discussing the code status with the patient, family, and interprofessional teams.
What is ethics?The study of ethics is the study of morality, or what is ethically right and wrong. Any theory or system of moral ideals or principles can also be included under this umbrella phrase.
It is crucial for the nurse to feel empowered and to speak up for their patient because they provide continuity of care for the patient. The nurse receives assistance from the ethics consultation.
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What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for tyroid nudulas
Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA) would be the most appropriate initial investigation for thyroid nodules.
What are Thyroid Nodules?Thyroid nodules may be defined as a condition of an overgrowth of normal thyroid tissue due to some unknown facts and circumstances.
Fine needle aspiration biopsy (FNA) would be considered the most standard test for evaluating or investigating thyroid nodules.
It is a head strategy, accomplished beneath no or regional anesthesia with a 23 to 27-gauge needle, to acquire tissue specimens for cytological examination.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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For a 1.62% gel, 75g pump bottle, if there are 60 pumps per bottle and a member is prescribed 4 pumps per day, how many bottles will the member need per month (30 days)?
The person needs only two bottles if there are 60 pumps per bottle and a member is prescribed 4 pumps per day.
How many bottles will the member need per month?If there are 60 pumps per bottle and a member is prescribed 4 pumps per day, then only two bottles will the member need per month because one bottle last for 15 days. So in this way two bottles are enough for 30 days.
So we can conclude that the person needs only two bottles if there are 60 pumps per bottle and a member is prescribed 4 pumps per day.
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Which of the following is a common risk factor for endothelial injury?
OA. Atrial fibrillation
OB. High levels of high-density lipoproteins
OC. Hypertension
D. Low levels of low-density lipoproteins
Answer:
OC. Hypertension
Explanation:
Nonnutritive sweeteners, when consumed within the acceptable daily intake (ADI) levels, do not pose health risks. a. True b. False
Answer:
The answer is true
The packaging of investigational drugs should ideally:
The packaging of investigational drugs should ideally be designed to help with subject compliance.
What is investigational drugs?
Investigational drug is a substance that has been tested in the laboratory and has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for testing in people.
Investigational drug should be packaged to prevent contamination and unacceptable deterioration during transport and storage.
Thus, the packaging of investigational drugs should ideally be designed to help with subject compliance.
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During your abdominal exam on the previous patient, you flex the patient's right hip to 90 degrees and take his right ankle in your right hand and with your left hand externally then internally rotate his hip by moving the knee back and forth. The patient denies any abdominal pain with this movement. What physical exam sign did you just perform and what disease is it ruling out
The physical exam sign that is being performed on the patient is Obturator sign and it rules out acute appendicitis.
What is Obturator sign?Obturator sign is a type of physical examination sign that is used to assess inflamed pelvic appendix that is in contact with the obturator internus muscle.
This procedure is carried out by:
Flexing the patient's right hip to 90 degrees,take his right ankle in your right hand and with your left hand externally,then internally rotate his hip by moving the knee back and forth.The absence of abdominal pain is indicative of absence of acute appendicitis.
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Health issues can be addressed in part by the ________ made by doctors and researchers that can help people live longer, healthier lives.
Health issues can be addressed in part by the medical advances made by doctors and researchers that can help people live longer, healthier lives.
What is health?It should be noted that health simply means a physical, mental, and social well being of an individual.
In this case, health issues can be addressed in part by the medical advances made by doctors and researchers that can help people live longer, healthier lives.
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A patient has gone into cardiac arrest. Prior to the arrest, a 12-lead ECG showed flat T waves, prominent U waves and prolonged QT intervals. What underlying cause should you suspect
The underlying cause you should suspect during the 12-lead ECG test on the patient is Hypokalemia.
What is Hypokalemia?
Hypokalemia is a medical disorder that results from low levels of potassium in the blood.
During 12-lead ECG test, hypokalemia can cause dynamic changes in T-wave morphology and prolonged QT intervals.
Thus, the underlying cause you should suspect during the 12-lead ECG test on the patient is Hypokalemia.
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