Which of the following is equivalent to x + 1/y ÷ g + 1/h

x + 1 / y ÷ h / g + 1
x + 1 / y · h / g + 1
y / x+1 ÷ g + 1 / h
x/y · h/g

Answer:

Answer down below

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to achieve his goal of paying the credit debt off in 24 months, B. Gio can eliminate $62.57 from Entertainment/Shopping.

If Gio is paying $105, the number of months that he will be able to pay back the debt in, can be found using credit card debt calculators to be 3 years and 10 months.

In order to pay back his credit card debt in 24 months, the minimum amount he needs to pay is:

= $167.57 per month

Considering that he is currently paying $105, the amount extra that he needs to pay is:
= 167.57 - 105

= $62.57

This can be acquired from Entertainment/ Shopping.

In conclusion, option B is correct.

Find out more on credit card repayment at https://brainly.com/question/1891029.

#SPJ1

Answer:

$1555.91

Step-by-step explanation:

First Month:

You start out with $500.

You add $200 in the first month, and have 700.

Multiply 700 by 1.01, to add the interest and you get 707.

Second Month:

707 + 200 = 907

907 x 1.01 = 916.07

Third Month:

916.07 + 200 = 1116.07

1116.07 x 1.01 = 1127.2307

Fourth Month:
1127.2307 + 200 = 1327.2307

1327.2307 x 1.01 = 1340.503007 (round to .50)

Fifth Month:

1340.50 + 200 = 1540.50

1540.50 x 1.01 = 1555.905

Round to 1555.905 1555.91, and there's your answer. Hope this helps!

Answer:

Use math  way because it is a good way to solve it

Answer:

5.32 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

It is given that 1 inch represents 50 feet, or 1 in = 50 feet.

The actual dome is 266 feet. To find the amount of inches, divide 266 with 50:

266 total feet/50 feet per inch = 5.32 inches.

The scale model in inches, therefore, would be 5.32 inches.

~

Answer:

her model will be 5.32 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

use the butterfly proportions method

Make a table of inches to feet. then cross multiply to find 'y' and boom. watch me solve it for a better understanding. Its not as difficult as it seems

inches  feet

   1         50

   y         266

266 x 1 = 50y

266 ÷ 50 = y

y = 5.32

her model will be 5.32 inches

Answer:

in the following diagram DE=6m,EG=10m,FG=8

calculate the length of the following

DG

Answer:

When X = 25

Step-by-step explanation:

Use derivative = 0 to locate the turning point

50 - 2X = 0 => X = 25

The probability that the sum of your rolls is 5 or higher is 13/18

In a roll of two fair die, we have the following parameters:

So, the probability is:

P = 26/36

Simplify

P = 13/18

Hence, the probability that the sum of your rolls is 5 or higher is 13/18

Read more about probability at:

https://brainly.com/question/251701

#SPJ1

Answer:

[tex]9\sqrt{2}[/tex] m.

Step-by-step explanation:

Side of the square is a

Perimeter is 4 * a = 36

a = 36 / 4

a=9

Diagonal is a[tex]\sqrt{2}[/tex]

[tex]9\sqrt{2}[/tex]

just a quick addition to the reply above.

Check the picture below.

Answer:

[tex]k \: kk \: = \frac{515151}{333} [/tex]

Answer:

it goes up 80 in every column in this problem except the 6,. so the answer is 6,591 423

I hope I help

Answer: 1.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

8.5 sq cm

Step-by-step explanation:

5x3.4=17÷2=8.5

Answer:

2.4 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] \frac{5}{6} w = 2[/tex]

[tex]w = 2 \times \frac{6}{5} = \frac{12}{5} = 2.4[/tex]

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

"input 19" means use 19 in place of x.

"function x - 5" means use this rule to change the input number...take the number and subtract 5.

"Output" means , what do you end up with?

x - 5

19 - 5

14

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

7[tex]a^{2}[/tex] - 2a + 6  - ( -5[tex]a^{2}[/tex] + 3 )

7[tex]a^{2}[/tex] - 2a + 6 + 5[tex]a^{2}[/tex] - 3

12[tex]a^{2}[/tex] -2a +3

Answer:

[tex]\bf 5a^2+5a+3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\sf \left(7a-2a+6\right)-\left(-5a^2+3\right)[/tex]

[tex]\sf 7a-2a+6-\left(-5a^2+3\right)[/tex]

Combine like terms:-

[tex]\sf 5a+6-\left(-5a^2+3\right)[/tex]

Apply Distributive property:-

[tex]\sf 5a+6+5a^2-3[/tex]

Comnine like terms:-

[tex]\sf 5a^2+5a+6-3[/tex]

[tex]\sf 5a^2+5a+3[/tex]

Answer:

A) 75°

Step-by-step explanation:

It is the property of a polygon that the sum of the external angles is equal to 360°.

===============================================================

Solving :

⇒ p + 55 + 30 + 75 + 55 + 70 = 360

⇒ p + 85 + 130 + 70 = 360

⇒ p + 285 = 360

⇒ p = 360 - 285

⇒ ∠p = 75°

Answer :

A) 75°

because the property of polygon is equal to 360° the sum of external angles.

Hope it will help you

Answer:

2 codes are possible

Step-by-step explanation:

4 6  

2571

0389

There are only 10 digits and you can only use the digits onces so the answer would be 2 codes are possible.

The number of possible codes will be 5,040.

If each digit can be used only once, then the number of possible access codes is calculated as follows:

The first digit can be any of the 10 digits (0 through 9).

The second digit can be any of the remaining 9 digits (since one digit has already been used).

The third digit can be any of the remaining 8 digits.

The fourth digit can be any of the remaining 7 digits.

Therefore, the total number of possible access codes is:

10 x 9 x 8 x 7 = 5,040

So, there are 5,040 possible access codes if each digit can be used only once and not repeated.

Since there are 200 employees, the company has enough unique codes for each employee for 25 months. After that, the codes will have to be repeated, which may compromise the security of the system.

To know more about arrangement questions follow

https://brainly.com/question/17678325

#SPJ2

Answer:

9 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: B, 9 feet

Step-by-step explanation: edge :)

let the length of the ladder be x Using Pythagoras theorem, |hyp|^2=|opp|^2+|adj|^2

x^2=20^2+7^2

x^2= 400+49

x^2= 449

Square root of both sides:

√x^2= √449

x= 21.19ft

Thus, the length of the ladder is 21.19feet.

Answer: b. $2.00

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of (x-1)^2 at scores 1,2,1, and 4 are 0,1,0,8 respectively.

Quadratic equations are the polynomial equations of degree 2 in one variable of type  [tex]ax^2+bx+c[/tex] where a,b,c are constant and the x is variable.

Now from the given question we have  [tex](x-1)^2[/tex].

[tex](x-1)^2=x^2-2x+1[/tex]

Now we will find the value of scores 1,2,1,4 by putting in the equation.

At

[tex]x=1 \ \ \ =(1-1)^2=0\\\\\\x=2\ \ \ =(2-1)^2=1\\\\\\x=1\ \ \ =(1-1)^2=0\\\\\\x=4\ \ \ =(4-1)^2=8[/tex]

Hence the value of (x-1)^2 at scores 1,2,1, and 4 are 0,1,0,8 respectively.

To know more about Quadratic equation follow

https://brainly.com/question/1214333

#SPJ4

Answer:

infinitely many solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

The system of equations :

Multiplying Equation 1 times 3 and Equation 2 times 2 :

Putting the equations in standard form after simplifying :

As both equations are the same, the system will have infinitely many solutions.

Answer:

Nothing

Step-by-step explanation:

You can't divide 8 to equal 3 because 3 is an odd number and 8 is an even number.

:)

Notice that the dividend [tex]8y^2-12y+4[/tex] has tree terms with [tex]a=8y^2[/tex], [tex]b=-12y[/tex], c [tex]c=4[/tex]

Now, to divided our dividend [tex]8y^2-12y+4[/tex] by the monomial (single term) [tex]4y[/tex], the easiest thing to do is divide each term of the dividend by the monomial:

[tex]8y^2-12y+4[/tex] ÷ [tex]4y[/tex] = [tex]\frac{8y^2-12y+4}{4y}=\frac{8y^2}{4y}-\frac{12y}{4y}+\frac{4}{4y}=2y-3+\frac{1}{y}[/tex]

After performing the division we get that now [tex]a=2y[/tex] and [tex]b=-3[/tex]

We can conclude that the correct answer is a = 2y and b = –3

Answer:

2) option (d)

3) option (c)

4) option (b)

5) option (b)

6) option (a)

Answer:

400 students

Step-by-step explanation:

64 - 16%

? - 100%

(100*64)/16

= 400

Answer:

The first option.

Step-by-step explanation:

Use the base law of exponents, which states that (x^m)^n equals x^(m * n).