which of the following instrument would you prefer to measure the length of table
1 vernier calliper
2screw gage
3 microscope
4meter rod​

Answer:

5m

Explanation:

The wavelength of a wave is the distance between successive trough or crest ;

Meaning that distance between successive trough is distance between trough and crest plus distance between crest and trough

Which is 2 times distance between trough and crest;

2×2.5= 5m

The acceleration of the particle when it achieves its maximum displacement in the positive x-direction is 32 m/s²

To calculate the acceleration of the particle, we need to differentiate the expression for the velocity.

Given:

differentiate v with respect to t

When the particle achieves its maximum displacement,

Substitute these value of t into equation 1

Hence The acceleration of the particle when it achieves its maximum displacement in the positive x-direction is 32 m/s²

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Answer:

the branch currents are as follows:

  top left: I2 = 0.625 A

  middle left: I1 = 2.500 A

  bottom left: I1-I2 = 1.875 A

  top center: I2+I3 = 2.500 A

  bottom center: I2+I3-I1 = 0 A

  right: I3 = 1.875 A

Explanation:

You can write the KVL equations:

Top left loop:

  I2(4) +(I2 +I3)(2) +I1(1) = 10

Bottom left loop:

  (I1-I2)(4) +(I1-I2-I3)(2) +I1(1) = 10

Right loop:

  (I2+I3)(2) +(I2+I3-I1)(2) = 5

In matrix form, the equations are ...

  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{ccc}1&6&2\\7&-6&-2\\-2&4&4\end{array}\right]\cdot\left[\begin{array}{c}I_1\\I_2\\I_3\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{c}10\\10\\5\end{array}\right][/tex]

These equations have the solution ...

  [tex]\left[\begin{array}{c}I_1\\I_2\\I_3\end{array}\right] =\left[\begin{array}{c}2.500\\0.625\\1.875\end{array}\right][/tex]

This means the branch currents are as follows:

  top left: I2 = 0.625 A

  middle left: I1 = 2.500 A

  bottom left: I1-I2 = 1.875 A

  top center: I2+I3 = 2.500 A

  bottom center: I2+I3-I1 = 0 A

  right: I3 = 1.875 A

_____

This can be worked almost in your head by using the superposition theorem. When the 5V source is shorted, the 10V source is supplying (I1) to a circuit that is the 4 Ω and 2 Ω resistors in parallel with their counterparts, and that 2+1 Ω combination in series with 1 Ω for a total of a 4Ω load on the 10 V source. That is, I1 due to the 10V source is 2.5 A, and it is nominally split in half through the upper and lower branches of the circuit. There is no current flowing through the (shorted) 5 V source branch.

When the 10V source is shorted, the 5V source is supplying a 4 +4 Ω branch in parallel with a 2 +2 Ω branch, a total load of 8/3 Ω. This makes the current from that source (I3) be 5/(8/3) = 15/8 = 1.875 A. There is zero current from this source through the 1 Ω resistor.

Nominally, the current from the 5V source splits 2/3 through the 2 Ω branch and 1/3 through the 4 Ω branch.

Using superposition, I2 = I1/2 -I3/3 = (2.5 A/2) -(1/3)(15/8 A) = 0.625 A. This is the same answer as above, without any matrix math.

  (I1, I2, I3) = (2.5 A, 0.625 A, 1.875 A)

__

It helps to be familiar with the formulas for resistors in series and parallel.

Answer:

Non metal and nonmetal

Explanation:

Covalent bonds are formed between non-metal and non-metal

Hope this helps...

Answer:

label 1:w

label 2: x

label 3:y

Explanation:

you should add me on sp  annabell_aaaa

Answer:

w,x,y

Explanation:

i did it on edg

Answer:

Frictional force refers to the force generated by two surfaces that contacts and slide against each other.

~Hope this helps~ T^T

Answer:

W= 20000j

Explanation:

W= fd = 1000N(20m) = 20000j

Answer:

hope this helps love! There are three methods of heat transfer: conduction, convection, and radiation. Cooking of food usually uses a combination of these methods. Conduction transfers the heat using direct contact; food is heated directly in a metal pan, in a liquid, or surrounded by air. ... The heat from the water is transferred to the egg.

Explanation:

When the water is heated, thermal expansion happens so the particles move farther apart and then the hot water moves up because it is less dense then the colder water. ... Convection is happening because when air is heated by the fire, the air becomes less dense and moves up because denser things sink.

Answer:

640 J

Explanation:

ΔKE = KE − KE₀

ΔKE = ½ mv² − ½ mv₀²

ΔKE = ½ m (v² − v₀²)

ΔKE = ½ (80 kg) ((5 m/s)² − (3 m/s)²)

ΔKE = 640 J

Her kinetic energy increases by 640 J, so she does 640 J of work.

It's 640 for both answers. :)

Answer:

circular motion is 2D

Explanation:

The circle is a two-dimensional (2D) shape. It only has two measurements, such as length and height, and is usually called a 'flat' shape. The ball, however, is a three-dimensional (3D) shape because it has three measurements (length, height, and width) and is sometimes called a 'solid' shape.

hope this helped

Answer:

a) B = 0.0151 T

b) [tex] \theta = 4.737 * 10^-^6 Tm^2 [/tex]

c) [tex] E = 7.896*10^-^4 [/tex]

d) [tex] = 60.4 T [/tex]

Explanation:

Given:

Diameter, d = 2.5 cm convert to meters = 0.025 m

Length, L = 30.0 cm convert to meters = 0.3 m

Number of turns, N = 300

Current, I = 12 A

a) Let's use the formula below to find the magnetic field.

[tex] B = \frac{u_0 N I}{L} [/tex]

[tex] B = \frac{4\pi * 10^-^7 * 300 * 12}{0.3} [/tex]

[tex] B = \frac{0.004524}{0.3} [/tex]

B = 0.0151 T

b) Given a radius, r = 1.00 cm, let's convert it to meters = 0.01 m

Let's use the formula below to find magnetic flux.

[tex] \theta = BA [/tex]

where [tex] A = \pi r^2 [/tex]

Therefore,

[tex] \theta = B \pi r^2 [/tex]

[tex] = 0.0151 \pi * (0.01)^2 [/tex]

[tex] \theta = 4.737 * 10^-^6 Tm^2 [/tex]

c) Given that the current in the solenoid uniformly goes from 12 A to 10 A in 0.001 seconds, the EMF generated will be:

[tex]E = \frac{- change in \theta}{change in t} = \frac{-u_0 N}{L} * \pi r^2 * \frac{change in I}{change in t}[/tex]

[tex] E = \frac{-4\pi * 10^-^7 * 300}{0.3} * \pi *(0.01)^2 * \frac{10 - 12}{0.001} [/tex]

[tex] -0.00125663 * \pi *(0.01)^2 * -2000[/tex]

[tex] E = 7.896*10^-^4 [/tex]

d) Let's use the formula:

[tex] \frac{u_m N I}{L} = 4000 \frac{u_0 NI}{L} [/tex]

[tex] 4000 * 0.0151 [/tex]

[tex] = 60.4 T [/tex]

Explanation:

We have,

Mass of a box is 115 kg

Applied force is 424 N

It is required to find the frictional force of the floor on the box against you. Frictional force is an opposing force. It opposes the motion of an object. Here the applied force is 424 N. So, the frictional force has a magnitude of 424 N but it acts in opposite direction.

Answer:

5Hz

Explanation:

Frequency = No. of waves per second

10 waves are produced in 2 seconds

in one second 10/2 waves are produced

(ie) 5 waves are produced in 1 second

Therefore the frequency of wave is 5 Hz

Answer:

Explanation:

R1= (1/6 + 1/6)rised to -1 = 3 ohm

R total = R1 + 6 = 3+ 6 =  9 ohm

Answer:

D.Oxygen has five valence electrons

Answer:

scattering of light

Explanation:

is the scattering of light as a light beam passes through a colloid. The individual suspension particles scatter and reflect light, making the beam visible. ...

Answer:

Explanation:36.05 km

Given

First car travels [tex]r_1=20\ km[/tex] South

then turns and travels [tex]r_2=30\ km[/tex] east

Suppose south as negative y axis and east as positive x axis

So, [tex]r_1=-20\hat{j}[/tex]

[tex]r_2=30\hat{i}[/tex]

Displacement is the shortest between initial and final point

Dispalcement[tex]=r=r_1+r_2[/tex]

Displacement[tex]=-20\hat{j}+30\hat{i}[/tex]

Displacement[tex]=30\hat{i}-20\hat{j}[/tex]

Magnitude [tex]=\sqrt{30^2+(-20)^2}[/tex]

Magnitude[tex]=36.05\ km[/tex]

Answer:

8 mph

Explanation:

4 miles in half hour so you add 4 more for the second half

Answer: b. The combination is a mixture because the substances can be separated

Explanation: Based on the facts presented above, the combination of both both substances can be referred to as a mixture due to the following:

A mixture is obtained when two or more substances or materials are combined without a chemical reaction. This is observed when Jalen combined substance 1 and 2 with only one of the substances becoming visible after the combination.

The other reason is that, a mixture can be separated back into its original constituent, this is evident when the combination was filtered with only substance 2 going through the filter and substance 1 remaining in the filter

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Velocity = velocity (initial) + acceleration*time.

More time - higher velocity.

Answer:

15 V

Explanation:

From the question,

For series connection: (i) Both resistor have a common current flowing through the (ii) The combined resistance = R1+R2

Rt = R1+R2.................. Equation 1

Given: R1 = 5 ohms, R2 = 7.5 ohms.

Rt = 5+7.5 = 12.5 ohms.

Applying Ohm's law,

V = IRt................... Equation 2

Where V = Voltage, I = current.

make I The subject of the equation

I = V/Rt.............. Equation 3

Given: V = 25 V, Rt = 12.5 ohms.

Substitute into equation 3

I = 25/12.5

I = 2 A.

Now,

Voltage drop across the 7.5 ohms resistor = R2×I

Voltage drop across the 7.5 ohms resistor = 7.5×2

Voltage drop across the 7.5 ohms resistor = 15 V

Answer:

358.9 (+/- 0.4) million years ago

Holocene Epoch, of the Quaternary Period

Devonian period

66 million years ago (prox)

521 million years ago

110,000 years ago

NW

North america became more cold when it moved NW

Explanation:

Answer:

3N

Explanation:

Note that when an object is immersed in water it weighs less.

This means the weight seen is the apparent weight.

Now in water there is upthrust and is a counter force acting on the object and this force is opposite to the weight of the fluid alongside the container 10N

The apparent weight is the real weight - the upthrust

7N-10 = -3N

The essence of the negative sign is to show that this force is acting in opposite direction to the weight.

Note: the upthrust is 10N and it's opposite to the weight of the fluid and the tube on which the object on the force meter is subjected to.

Answer:

[tex]\beta=B=8.05\mu T[/tex]

Explanation:

The density of the magnetic flux is given by the following formula:

[tex]\beta=\frac{\Phi_B}{A}=\frac{ABcos\theta}{A}=Bcos\theta[/tex]

The normal vector A and the vector of the magnitude of the magnetic field are perpendicular, then, the angle is zero:

The magnitude of the magnetic field is calculated by using the formula for B at a distance of x to a point in the plane of the loop:

[tex]B=\frac{\mu_oIR^2}{2(x^2+R^2)^{3/2}}[/tex]

For x = 0 you have:

[tex]B=\frac{\mu_oIR^2}{2R^3}=\frac{\mu_oI}{2R}[/tex]

R is the radius of the circular loop and its values is:

[tex]R=\sqrt{\frac{A}{\pi}}=\sqrt{\frac{0.5m^2}{\pi}}=0.39m[/tex]

Then, you replace in the equation for B with mu_o = 4\pi*10^-7 T/A:

[tex]B=\frac{(4\pi*10^{-7}T/A)(5A)}{2(0.39m)}=8.05*10^{-6}T=8.05\mu T[/tex]

and the density of the magnetic flux is

[tex]\beta=B=8.05\mu T[/tex]

Answer:

2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 7 = 168

Explanation:

Prime factors of 168: 2, 3 and 7

These are the factors of 168:  1,2,3,4,6,7,8,12,14,21,24,28,42,56,84,168. Only 2, 3 and 7 are prime numbers meaning that they are only divisible by themselves and 1. Therefore they are the prime factors.

Answer:

Prime factors of 168: 2, 3 and 7

Answer:

A) 12.57 m

B) 5 RPM

C) 3.142 m/s

Explanation:

A) Distance covered in 1 Revolution:

The formula that gives the relationship between the arc length or distance covered during circular motion to the angle subtended or the revolutions, is given as follows:

s = rθ

where,

s = distance covered = ?

r = radius of circle = 2 m

θ = Angle = 2π radians  (For 1 complete Revolution)

Therefore,

s = (2 m)(2π radians)

s = 12.57 m

B) Angular Speed:

The formula for angular speed is given as:

ω = θ/t

where,

ω = angular speed = ?

θ = angular distance covered = 15 revolutions

t = time taken = 3 min

Therefore,

ω = 15 rev/3 min

ω = 5 RPM

C) Linear Speed:

The formula that gives the the linear speed of an object moving in a circular path is given as:

v = rω

where,

v = linear speed = ?

r = radius = 2 m

ω = Angular Speed in rad/s = (15 rev/min)(2π rad/1 rev)(1 min/60 s) = 1.571 rad/s

Therefore,

v = (2 m)(1.571 rad/s)

v = 3.142 m/s

Answer:

Time taken by birdie’s trip = 1.2235 s (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Velocity = 4.25 m/s

Displacement = 5.2 m

Find:

Time taken by birdie’s trip = ?

Computation:

⇒ Time taken = Displacement / Velocity

⇒ Time taken by birdie’s trip = Displacement / Velocity

⇒ Time taken by birdie’s trip = 5.2 m / 4.25 m/s

⇒ Time taken by birdie’s trip = 1.2235 s (Approx)

Kai weight on mars will be 203.5 N.

Gravitational field strength on Mars = 3.7 N/kg. (Given)

Mass = 55 kg. (Given)

Weight = Mass × Gravitational field strength

Weight = 55 kg × 3.7 N/kg

Weight = 203.5 N

Thus, we can conclude that Weight is the Gravitational force between the object and the planet.

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Answer:

So, Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun.

Explanation: