What results when the combined effect of two different drugs taken together exceeds the sum of the individual drugs administered alone? cross-dependence cross-tolerance hyperadditive antagonistic

Answers

Answer 1

What results when the combined effect of two different drugs taken together exceeds the sum of the individual drugs administered alone  is called hyper additive.

What is drug hyper additive condition?

Drug hyper additive condition is a drug interaction that occurs when the effect of two drugs given in combination surpasses the mathematical summation of their effects when given alone.

They produce more effect that when administered separately.

Therefore, what results when the combined effect of two different drugs taken together exceeds the sum of the individual drugs administered alone  is called hyper additive.

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Related Questions

what is a significant personal cost associated with the flu

Answers

The significant personal cost associated with the flu is Death. Explanation: Flu is the respiratory track disease caused by the viruses.

Answer:

The significant personal cost associated with the flu is Death. Explanation: Flu is the respiratory track disease caused by the viruses.

Explanation:

Thats a simple question. I'm studying to become a doctor.

One reason it’s critical for caregivers to improve their teams’ effectiveness is:

Answers

Effective teams reduce the risk of errors by providing a healthy environment for individual caregivers.

What is  teams’ effectiveness?

Team effectiveness is the capacity a team has to accomplish the goals or objectives given by an authorized personnel or the organization.

It is important to improve teams' effectiveness because it provides healthy environment for everyone in the team.

Thus, One reason it’s critical for caregivers to improve their teams’ effectiveness is: effective teams reduce the risk of errors by providing a healthy environment for individual caregivers.

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Which of the following is NOT an example of a way to help reduce mental health stigmas?

A. Avoiding judgement of people with mental illness before you get to know them
B. Becoming more comfortable with the use of words like "crazy," "nuts," or "insane" C. Criticizing any negative portrayal in the media of those living with mental illness
D. Exercising compassionate patience when around those suffering from mental illness

Answers

B. Becoming more comfortable with the use of words like "crazy," "nuts," or "insane"

A diet deficient in calcium can lead to which condition?

Answers

Based off the context, either hypocalcemia or osteoporosis.

Osteoporosis:

A disorder in which the bones become increasingly porous, brittle, and subject to fracture, owing to loss of calcium and other mineral components, sometimes resulting in pain, decreased height, and skeletal deformities: common in older persons, primarily postmenopausal women, but also associated with long-term steroid therapy and certain endocrine disorders.

Hypocalcemia:

An abnormally small amount of calcium in the blood.

Lack of context. So I can provide this.

Hope this helps.

hypocalcemia which means below (hypo) (calc) calcium

Is it bad for skin to eat yoghurt after fish ?​

Answers

Answer:

nope!

Explanation:

it's a myth that dairy and fish products consumed together or in a certain amount of time will cause skin problems however this is not true.

Answer:

no it's not true .

Explanation:

hope it helps and have a nice day! :)

BRAINIEST is appreciated

which patient is most likely to experience primary airway compromise?

Answers

The patient that is most likely to experience primary airway compromise is a patient with an inhalation injury.

What is primary airway compromise?

Primary airway compromise is defined as the blockage of the airway which started from the nostrils to the lungs.

When there is inhalation injury due to underlying illness or trauma, such patients is likely to experience primary airway compromise.

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what is the function of brain​

Answers

Answer:

As the most specialised organ in the body the brain is responsible for all the coordination and control in the body.

how do COX inhibitors act as an anti-pyretic agent?

Answers

COX inhibitors act as an anti-pyretic agent because IL-1 releases PG into the CNS and elevates hypothalamic set point for temperature control.

What are COX inhibitors?

COX inhibitors can be defined as a type of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is developed for the treatment of inflammation and pain in patients.

Thus, COX inhibitors are developed to inhibit COX enzymes in inflammatory cells.

Based on medical information, COX inhibitors act as an anti-pyretic agent because IL-1 releases PG into the central nervous system (CNS) and elevates hypothalamic set point for temperature control.

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Match each term with its definition.
gender expression
a person whose gender identity and
biological sex align
transgender
a person whose gender identity and
biological sex do not align
gender
X
how people communicate their gender within
a culture
the characteristics of being male or female,
as defined by society
gender identity
X
cisgender
X
the inherent sense of self as either male or
female

Answers

Cisgender- A person whose gender identity and biological sex align

Transgender - A person whose gender identity and biological sex do not align

Gender expression- how people communicate their gender within a culture

Gender- the characteristics of being a male or female as defined by society

Gender identity- the inherent sense of sled as either male or female

The matching of each term with its definition is as follows:

Gender: the characteristics of being male or female, as defined by society. Gender identity: the inherent sense of sled as either male or female.Gender expression:  how people communicate their gender within a culture.Cisgender: a person whose gender identity and biological sex align.Transgender: a person whose gender identity and biological sex do not align.

What is Biological sex?

Biological sex may be defined as an individual's sex which is either male, female, or other based on an individual's external anatomy and their supposed sex chromosomes or hormones.

Therefore, the matching of each term with its definition is described above specifically.

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Once an ovum is released from an ovary,

Answers

Once the ovum is released from an ovary, it enters into fallopian tubes.

What are fallopian tubes?

The fallopian tubes are body structures in which the ovum travel from the ovaries toward the uterus.

These structures (fallopian tubes)  are also called oviducts due to their function during fecundation.

In conclusion, once the ovum is released from an ovary, it enters into fallopian tubes.

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If you have 4 45 plates and a 45 pound bar how heavy is that

Answers

the answer that ur looking for is 225

Answer:

225

Explanation:

45x4=180

180+45=225

for a client with an endotracheal (et) tube, which nursing action is the most important?

Answers

For a client with an endotracheal (et) tube, the nursing action which is the most important is endotracheal tube sunction to ensure clear airways.

What is an endotrachael tube?

An endotracheal tube is a tube which is inserted into the airways, the trachea in order to enhance breathing due to an inability of the patient to breathe on their own.

It is important that the trachea and airways are vlear and free of fluid for a patient with an endotracheal tube.

Therefore, the nursing action which is the most important is endotracheal tube sunction to ensure clear airways.

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It is generally safe to share your prescription drugs with someone else if:

Answers

It is never safe to share your prescription drugs with someone else.

What is prescription drug ?

Prescription drug is a pharmaceutical drug that legally requires a medical prescription to be dispensed.

Since prescription drug  legally requires medical prescription, it is never safe to share your prescription drugs with someone else.

Thus, it is never safe to share your prescription drugs with someone else.

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What is a blood smear? How is it collected?

Answers

A blood smear is a snapshot of the different types of blood cells present in the sample.

How Blood smear is collected

Blood smear is usually collected using a needle and a collecting tube or vial for tests.

The blood smear is then observed with a microscope to ascertain the number, types of blood cells and to check if they are normal.

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Which std is the second most commonly reported infectious disease in the united states?.

Answers

Answer: Gonorrhea

Explanation: The third most common STD (and second most reported one), gonorrhea is a bacterial infection that can be successfully treated with antibiotics. Delaying treatment, however, can lead to medical complications. Like chlamydia, untreated gonorrhea can result in pelvic inflammatory disease in women. (I apologize if I'm wrong.)

Dr. Karen shively studied macaque monkeys. How did the subordinate monkey’s arteries differ from the dominant monkey’s arteries?

Answers

The subordinate monkey’s arteries differ from the dominant monkey’s arteries in stress in the arteries.

Difference between subordinate monkey's arteries and dominant monkey's arteries?

Subordinate monkey's arteries: increase in stress as a result of increase in atherosclerosis fluid inside the arteries.

Dominant monkey's arteries: little history of stress as a result of clean arteries.

Thus, the subordinate monkey’s arteries differ from the dominant monkey’s arteries in stress in the arteries.

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__________________ reduces the amount of virus (or viral load) in the blood and body fluids. ART STD HIV PEP

Answers

Answer:ART

Explanation: HIV positive people use ART. it reduces the amount of virus in blood/body fluids

ART reduces the amount of virus (or viral load) in the blood and body fluids.

What does antiretroviral therapy ART do?

Antiretroviral remedy (art) is the mixture of numerous antiretroviral medicines used to sluggish the price at which HIV makes copies of itself (multiplies) in the frame. A combination of three or more antiretroviral drug treatments is extra powerful than using just one medicinal drug (monotherapy) to treat HIV.

HIV treatment (antiretroviral therapy, or ART) includes taking medications prescribed by your healthcare provider. HIV treatment helps reduce the amount of HIV in the body and keeps you healthy. There is no cure for HIV, but it can be controlled with HIV treatment.

Treatment of HIV / AIDS usually involves the use of multiple antiretroviral drugs to control HIV infection. There are several classes of antiretroviral drugs that act at different stages of the disease.

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While providing information to a community group, the nurse tells them the primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are:

Answers

The nurse tells them the primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are severe headache, numbness and neck stiffness.

What is hemorrhagic stroke?

Hemorrhagic stroke is stroke which occurs as a result of a ruptured blood vessel causing bleeding in the brain.

Hemorrhagic stroke is a life-threatening emergency and requires urgent medical attention.

The primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are:

severe headache,vomiting,neck stiffness,increases in blood pressure, andnumbness

Therefore, the nurse tells them the primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are severe headache, numbness and neck stiffness.

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_________ can be used to temporarily reverse the respiratory depression or arrest caused by opioid overdose.

Answers

Naloxone can be used to temporarily reverse respiratory depression or arrest caused by opioid overdose.

What is Naloxone?

Naloxone is a specific drug that can be used in order to switch opioid overdose effects.

This chemical compound (Naloxone) is very useful in the cases of overdoses of drugs such as heroin.

In conclusion, Naloxone can be used to temporarily reverse respiratory depression or arrest caused by opioid overdose.

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The image shows a meal of grilled chicken breast and fresh vegetables. What makes this meal unbalanced? Check all that apply.

Answers

There’s no imagine for me??

Answer:

A. The protein serving is too large.

C. Grains are not represented.

D. The vegetable serving should be larger.

Explanation:

which disorder causes the trachea to shift away from the midline?

Answers

Pneumothorax is the disorder causes the trachea to shift away from the midline.

What is meant by Tracheal deviation?

Tracheal deviation is the shifting away of the trachea from the midline. It occurs when injuries or pressure build up in your chest cavity or neck or sometimes due to disorder.

So we can conclude that Pneumothorax is the disorder causes the trachea to shift away from the midline.

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What is the proper contractual adjustment code on a medicare remit for sequestration?.

Answers

Answer:

Claim adjustment reason code (CARC) 253 is used to report the sequestration reduction. The code will appear as a CO 253 on the RA "Sequestration – reduction in federal payment" as the reason.

CO 253

Explanation:

The code contractual is (CARC) 253

a client has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and has been prescribed warfarin therapy. what should the nurse prioritize when providing health education to the client?

Answers

A client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and has been prescribed warfarin therapy, the nurse should instructing the client to take the medication regimen at all times.

What is atrial fibrillation?

Atrial fibrillation is known as irregular and very rapid or fast heart rhythm which could lead to blood clots

In administering warfarin therapy, the following instructions should be followed;

Watch for hemorrhage or bleedingInstruct patient to take the medication regimen at all times prescribed.

Therefore, for a client diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and has been prescribed warfarin therapy, the nurse should instructing the client to take the medication regimen at all times.

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Ms. O’donnell learned about a new ma-pd plan that her neighbor suggested and that you represent. She plans to switch from her old ma hmo plan to the new ma-pd plan during the annual election period. However, she wants to make sure she does not end up paying premiums for two plans. What can you tell her?.

Answers

She only needs to enroll in the new MA-PD plan and she will automatically be disenrolled from her old MA plan.

How to register for a health plan?

When it comes to registering for health plans, it is always important not to register more than once so as not to pay double of what is required.

Now, in this case we see that Ms. O'Donnell plans to switch from her old ma hmo plan to the new ma-pd plan during the annual election period. However, since she is not sure if paying for the new plan means paying for the 2 plans, I would advice her to only enroll in the new MA-PD plan and she will automatically be disenrolled from her old MA plan.

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A pregnant client with type i diabetes asks the nurse about how to best control her blood sugar while she is pregnant. the best reply would be for the woman to:

Answers

According to the research, the pregnant client with type i diabetes should check her blood sugars frequently and adjust insulin accordingly.

What is type i diabetes?

It is an autoimmune disease, in which the insulin-producing cells are attacked and destroyed.

Women with type 1 diabetes can have a safe pregnancy by monitoring and controlling their blood sugar levels during pregnancy, otherwise they may experience complications with high blood pressure, vision loss, and kidney disease.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the pregnant client with type i diabetes should check her blood sugars frequently and adjust insulin accordingly.

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What is an Erythrocyte sed rate?

Answers

The Erythrocyte sed rate is 1–13 mm/hr for males and 1–20 mm/hr for females.

What is Erythrocyte sed rate?

This is referred to as erythrocyte sedimentation rate and is the rate in which red blood cells descend in an anticoagulated sample down a standardized tube per hour.

It is used to detect inflammation and is used in laboratory for various forms of tests.

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The bar chart identifies the percentage of adults who are familiar with a range of eating disorders.

A graph titled Percent of Disorders That Adults Are Familiar With shows eating disorders on the horizontal axis and numbers on the vertical axis. 43% are familiar with anorexia nervosa, 40% with bulimia, 32% with binge eating disorder, 43% with all three disorders, and 12% with none of the disorders.

What percentage of adults are familiar with all three eating disorders?

10 percent
32 percent
41 percent
43 percent

Answers

43 percent of adults are familiar with all three eating disorders. thus option D is correct.

What do you mean by bulimia nervosa?

Bulimia Nervosa Disorder is a condition that causes people to vomit their food. People with anorexia nervosa utilize medicines to lose weight, have poor eating habits, and place an excessive emphasis on food.

Binge eating disorder, bulimia nervosa, and anorexia nervosa are the three eating disorders that receive the greatest attention in the United States.

A person has a binge eating disorder if they consume a lot of food in a short period of time. They eat covertly so no one can see them and gain weight forever, yet they feel regret and guilt afterward.

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What are some things you can do to increase awareness of preventable health issues and encourage people in your community to lead healthier lives?

(You will need to be specific. For example: write an article for the local newspaper, organize a community garden, or anything else you feel might increase awareness. You will not have to do what you recommend, but you will need to think of at least one or two examples.)

Answers

Through population-based interventions, such as action to address socioeconomic determinants of health and health inequities, health promotion and illness prevention can be achieved.

What is disease prevention?

Disease prevention is defined as targeted, population-based, and individual-based treatments for primary and secondary (early detection) disease prevention with the goal of reducing disease burden and risk factors.

Primary health:

Actions aimed at preventing the onset of a disease are referred to as primary prevention (this may include actions to improve health through changing the impact of social and economic determinants on health; the provision of information on behavioral and medical health risks, alongside consultation and measures to decrease them at the personal and community level; nutritional and food supplementation; oral and dental hygiene education; and clinical preventive services such as immunization and vaccination of children, adults and the elderly, as well as vaccination or post-exposure prophylaxis for people exposed to a communicable disease).

Ways to promote health awareness:

Vaccination of children, adults, and the elderly, as well as post-exposure prophylaxis;Information about behavioral and medical health concerns, as well as strategies to mitigate those risks at the individual and population levels;Disease prevention programs, such as access to preventive services (for example, counseling), should be included at both the main and specialty levels of health care.

Supplemental nutrition and food; and Oral health services and dental hygiene education.  

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during the post cardiac arrest care period, the 12-lead electrocardiogram reveals an st-segement elevation myocardial infarcation. which step has the highest priority?

Answers

If an ST-Segment Elevation Myocardial Infarction is noticed post-cardiac arrest care, the next best step is to execute a Coronary Reperfusion as quickly as possible.

What is an ST-Segment Elevation Myocardial Infarction?

An ST-Segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is used to describe a variant of heart attached that typically affects to the lower changer of the hearts.

It is to be noted that Coronary Reperfusion is a form of treatment that helps to reactivate blood flow. This could be through or around arteries that have been blocked.

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2. Anything that causes stress is called
a(n)

Answers

Answer:

Stressor

Explanation:

Anything that causes stress is call a stressor

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