what are the bls (basic life support) steps used for adults?

Answers

Answer 1

Basic life support (BLS) is all about preserving blood supply of the heart and brain because without those two, survival is extremely difficult. The common acronym of life used is ABC -- airway, breathing, circulation.

The TL;DR is 1) scene safety, 2) assess for breathing and pulse, 3) alert need for help and call 911!, 4) remove articles in the way and start CPR, 5) initiate AED protocol, 6) continue CPR if necessary

So the "basic" steps for adults are:
1) Make sure the scene is safe. If the person is in water, pull them out. If the person is in a car, pull them out. If a person is anywhere that can cause harm to you performing BLS, pull them out! Ensure that the person is on as hard and flat of a surface as possible and as safe as possible.

2) Perform a few of these fairly quickly because time is precious. Yell at the person to try to wake the,. Shove their shoulders. Make a fist and rub your knuckles into their sternum. If they do not awaken, check radial pulse and carotid pulse. Do NOT use your thumb for either because your thumb has its own pulse and can be mistaken for the patient's. Instead, use second and third fingers and press them to the pulse points but not firm enough to occlude blood flow if there is a pulse. While checking these pulses, assess for chest rise and fall, indicating that they are breathing. Place an ear to their chest to assess if you can hear breathing. Place fingers to their nostrils to assess if you can feel breathing. If there is no breathing and no pulse, it is time for cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

3) If multiple people are around while you start, alert one person to contact EMS and another to locate an AED. Be pointed, take charge. Call them out by what they are wearing: "you in blue, call 911. You in red, find an AED now." If only one person is there, "you in blue, call 911, tell them someone is down, we need an AED stat." If you are alone, call 911 first! and then start CPR. If alone with no service, start CPR and yell for help!

4) Remove the clothing on the person's torso by any means necessary. You want to be able to make contact with their chest. I promise they can be embarrassed they are bare AFTER they are resuscitated. Put your non-dominant hand on top of your dominant hand and interlock your fingers, curling them towards your palm. Lock your arms as straight as they can go without sacrificing strength. Place these hands on the body of their sternum and compress the chest down at least 2 inches at a rate of 100-120 beats per minute -- if you need a song to go with "Baby Shark" is this tempo. Make sure you allow the best to fully recoil before pressing down again. Count to 30 chest compressions aloud and then perform 2 rescue breaths. Tilt their head upwards to open their airway, take one normal breath in, and blow it into a barrier device if available or their mouth. Take another normal breath in, and blow it into their mouth. Then return to chest compressions. 30 compressions and 2 rescue breaths repeat until help arrives. If other people are there, take turns every 2-5 cycles so that the patient's condition does not suffer due to fatigue. You do NOT have to be certified to learn to do this on-the-fly. Plus no one will care about if you have a BLS card from the AHA or Red Cross when you are in the middle of it.

It is not uncommon to break ribs in this process. This is expected and possibly necessary to save the patient's life.

5) Once the AED arrives, the compression cycle continues while having another person places the pads on the patient's right shoulder and lateral left side and then turns the machine on. It is important to follow the audio instructions it provides. When time, it will say "shock advised" and whoever is conducting the AED will yell "CLEAR" making sure no one is touching the patient before pressing the shock button. Once the shock has been completely delivered, return to CPR. If the AED says a shock is not advised, continue CPR for at least 5 cycles and check the rhythm once more. Repeat this process for as long as possible.

The goal is to either resuscitate them or to keep their brain and heart alive long enough for EMS or a rapid response team to take over.

Answer 2

BLS is an acronym for Basic Life Support, which refers to the skills needed to keep someone alive until more advanced care can be administered by a medical professional. There are seven basic life support steps used for adults:

Ensure Safety: Make sure the environment is safe for you and the patient. Wear gloves and, if feasible, other personal protective equipment (PPE) to protect yourself. Approach the individual and request permission to assist him. If the person is unresponsive, assume he has given consent to help.

Call for Help: Summoning Emergency Medical Services (EMS) personnel or other trained first responders is critical in a medical emergency. Dial 911 and notify the operator of the medical emergency.

Start CPR: If the patient is unresponsive and not breathing, start CPR. CPR combines chest compressions with rescue breathing. Administering high-quality CPR enhances the chances of survival.

Use an Automated External Defibrillator (AED): An AED is a device that can restore normal heart function by delivering an electrical shock to the heart. An AED will not restart a heart that has ceased beating.

Continue CPR: If there is no AED available or the AED does not indicate that a shock is needed, resume CPR immediately after the shock has been given.

Administer Rescue Breathing: Rescue breathing is used when the patient is not breathing on their own. This technique helps maintain the patient's airway and provides oxygen to the lungs. If the patient has a pulse but is not breathing on their own, use the rescue breathing method. Deliver oxygen using a bag-mask device or a demand valve resuscitator.

Monitor the Patient: Monitor the patient's vital signs regularly and keep track of any changes. Communicate with EMS personnel as soon as they arrive.

The seven basic life support steps are critical to know for adults in order to keep them alive until advanced medical assistance arrives. Knowing these steps and performing them efficiently can help improve the chances of survival for a person in a medical emergency.'

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Related Questions

Surgical Correction of Cecal Dilatation or torsion

Answers

Surgical correction of cecal dilatation or torsion involves surgical intervention to address the abnormal dilation or twisting of the cecum, typically through procedures such as rectopexy or cecal resection.

Surgical correction of cecal dilatation or torsion is a procedure performed to address a medical emergency involving the cecum, which is the beginning of the large intestine. Cecal dilatation refers to the abnormal enlargement of the cecum, while torsion refers to the twisting of the cecum on its own axis.

The surgical correction typically involves a laparotomy, which is a surgical incision made in the abdominal wall. Through this incision, the surgeon gains access to the abdominal cavity and locates the cecum. The dilated or twisted cecum is carefully examined, and the extent of the problem is assessed.

The surgical approach may involve detorsion, which involves untwisting the cecum if torsion is present. In cases of severe dilation or if the cecum is non-viable, a cecal resection may be necessary. During a cecal resection, the diseased portion of the cecum is removed, and the healthy segments are sutured back together.

The surgical correction of cecal dilatation or torsion aims to alleviate the obstruction, restore normal blood flow to the cecum, and prevent further complications such as ischemia or perforation. The specific surgical procedure performed will depend on the severity of the condition and the surgeon's assessment of the patient's overall health.

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A goal of this approach is eliminating maladaptive behavior patterns through employing techniques of acceptance and commitment to change.
a. Gestalt therapy
b. person-centered therapy
c. behavior therapy
d. existential therapy
e. psychoanalytic therapy

Answers

The goal of the approach described, which focuses on eliminating maladaptive behavior patterns through employing techniques of acceptance and commitment to change, is most aligned with behavior therapy. So, option C is accurate.

Behavior therapy is a therapeutic approach that emphasizes the role of behavior in the development and maintenance of psychological problems. It aims to address maladaptive behaviors by utilizing techniques such as operant conditioning, classical conditioning, and cognitive restructuring. The goal is to promote positive behavioral change by teaching individuals new, more adaptive behaviors and reducing problematic behaviors.

While other therapeutic approaches listed may incorporate aspects of acceptance, change, and personal growth, behavior therapy specifically emphasizes behavior change as a means to improve mental well-being. By targeting and modifying specific behaviors, behavior therapy aims to bring about positive and lasting changes in individuals' lives.

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which of the following is the primary focus of public health nursing? group of answer choices families and groups illness-oriented care individuals within the family unit promotion of quality of life

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The primary focus of public health nursing is promotion of quality of life.

Public health nursing is a field of nursing that focuses on promoting and improving the health of entire populations, communities, and individuals. This is accomplished through the use of various nursing interventions such as health education, disease prevention, and health promotion. This nursing specialization is concerned with maintaining health and preventing illness, as opposed to treating illnesses. Public health nurses provide care to individuals, families, and communities in a variety of settings, including homes, schools, clinics, and other healthcare facilities. They work to promote healthy behaviors, encourage healthy lifestyles, and reduce the risk of disease and injury. The ultimate goal of public health nursing is to promote and maintain the highest possible level of health for all members of the community.

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the nap reports to the nurse the patient's respirations are 32 and the patient is complaining of shortness of breath. what is the best action by the nurse at this time?

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When the nap reports to the nurse that the patient's respirations are 32 and the patient is complaining of shortness of breath, the best action by the nurse at this time is to conduct an immediate assessment and take necessary measures to stabilize the patient.  

A patient complaining of shortness of breath is an emergency situation that requires urgent medical attention. The nurse needs to act quickly to assess the patient's respiratory status, including oxygen saturation levels, lung sounds, and rate and depth of breathing, among others.The nurse should initiate oxygen therapy, preferably through a nasal cannula or mask, to improve the patient's oxygen saturation levels. Other measures that the nurse should consider include administering bronchodilators, diuretics, or other medications as appropriate.

The nurse may also consider positioning the patient in a high fowler's position to enhance breathing and reduce the feeling of shortness of breath. In some cases, the nurse may also need to assist the patient with breathing by using a bag-valve-mask or mechanical ventilation.Overall, the nurse must act quickly and decisively to stabilize the patient's respiratory status and prevent further deterioration. This involves initiating oxygen therapy, administering medications as appropriate, and positioning the patient to enhance breathing. The nurse should also monitor the patient closely for any changes in respiratory status and provide appropriate interventions as necessary to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.

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the nurse is caring for a client who is taking a sulfonamide and notices that the client has developed itchy hives. after contacting the health care provider, what term will the nurse use to describe the client's symptoms?

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After contacting the health care provider, the nurse will use the term "urticaria" to describe the client's symptoms.

Urticaria is also known as hives, which is a common symptom caused by sulfonamides. It is a rash on the skin that is usually red, raised, and itchy. Urticaria is caused by the body's immune system reacting to allergens or other triggers and causing the release of histamine and other chemicals. In this case, the nurse should report the client's symptoms to the healthcare provider and monitor the client's condition closely. It's essential to determine if the symptoms are allergic in origin and then discontinue the medication, along with other treatments as needed, such as antihistamines, corticosteroids, or epinephrine.

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the nurse is caring for infants having the condition failure to thrive (ftt). which infants would be at risk for this condition?

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When caring for infants with FTT, the nurse should evaluate the infant's risk factors and provide appropriate .

interventions.

Failure to thrive (FTT) is a condition characterized by an infant's inability to gain weight and grow at a normal rate. When the infant's physical and developmental growth is adversely affected by one or more factors, the condition occurs. There are various factors that put infants at risk for this condition. Let's delve into these factors and gain a better understanding of FTT.
When the nurse is caring for infants with FTT, she needs to consider the following risk factors:
1. Inadequate nutrition: Infants that are not getting enough nutrients from their formula or breast milk are more prone to failure to thrive. This could be due to a lack of milk supply or an insufficient supply of calories in the infant's diet.
2. Medical conditions: Certain medical conditions, such as gastrointestinal (GI) tract disorders, heart defects, and infections, can impair a child's ability to digest and absorb nutrients, leading to FTT.
3. Social factors: Factors such as poverty, lack of parental knowledge regarding proper infant feeding practices, and child neglect can cause infants to fail to thrive.
4. Developmental issues: Children who experience developmental delays, such as delayed motor and cognitive development, are more likely to have FTT.
5. Genetic and chromosomal abnormalities: Certain genetic and chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome, can make it difficult for children to gain weight.
In conclusion, FTT is a multifactorial condition that affects infants. Therefore, when caring for infants with FTT, the nurse should evaluate the infant's risk factors and provide appropriate interventions.

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Which disease is characterized by brain tissue pathology due to prions?

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The disease characterized by brain tissue pathology due to prions is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD).

CJD is a rare and fatal degenerative neurological disorder caused by abnormal proteins called prions. These misfolded prion proteins accumulate in the brain, leading to the destruction of brain tissue and the development of characteristic pathological features. CJD can manifest in different forms, including sporadic, familial, and acquired forms. It is associated with rapidly progressing neurological symptoms such as cognitive decline, personality changes, movement disorders, and eventually leads to severe disability and death. The prions responsible for CJD can be transmitted through contaminated tissues or medical procedures, although the majority of cases occur spontaneously without a known cause.

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a nurse teaches the staff about typical characteristics of benign tumors. which information from the staff indicates successful teaching?

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A nurse who teaches the staff about typical characteristics of benign tumors must ensure that the staff understands the concept well. The following information from the staff indicates successful teaching: Tumor cells grow and multiply slowly; they are not aggressive.

Benign tumors are not cancerous and are non-invasive. Benign tumors have a lower likelihood of spreading to other parts of the body; they are localized. Benign tumors usually have a well-defined edge, and they are encapsulated. Most of the time, benign tumors do not recur once they have been removed. Surgical removal of the tumor is the most common treatment option.

Malignant tumors, on the other hand, grow and divide quickly, invade surrounding tissues, spread to other parts of the body through the bloodstream or lymphatic system, and can recur even after treatment.

Therefore, understanding the characteristics of a benign tumor is important because it can help patients to identify their tumors and understand the treatment options available. Also, the nurse should advise them to seek medical advice immediately if they experience any unusual symptoms that could indicate a tumor.

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john, 34 years old, is being treated with clindamycin for osteomyelitis of his tibia following an open fracture 3 months ago. the nurse is teaching john how to properly administer the medication at home and the side effects that he needs to report to the health care provider. which would be the best instruction to give john?

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The best instruction to give John while teaching him how to properly administer clindamycin at home and the side effects that he needs to report to the healthcare provider is to inform him that he must report any signs of diarrhea.

Additionally, he should be advised to take the medication with a full glass of water, with or without food, and to finish the full course of the medication. The nurse will advise John to report any diarrhea symptoms as one of the most common side effects of clindamycin is pseudomembranous colitis. Clindamycin may cause irritation in the gastrointestinal tract leading to inflammation and can cause severe diarrhea. It is important to report diarrhea symptoms to the healthcare provider if John experiences it. Additionally, the nurse should instruct John to take clindamycin with a full glass of water, with or without food, and complete the full course of medication as prescribed. He should not stop taking the medication, even if he feels better, as this may cause the bacteria to become resistant.

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when teaching the patient about over-the-counter (otc) oxymetazoline hydrochloride (afrin), the nurse should stress to take as directed because overuse could result in:

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When educating the patient about over-the-counter (OTC) oxymetazoline hydrochloride (Afrin), the nurse should stress to take as directed because overuse could result in a variety of negative consequences.

Patients should be reminded that using oxymetazoline more than the recommended number of times per day or for longer than three days can result in complications. Using oxymetazoline for an extended period can result in rebound congestion, which is one of the most significant risks of overuse.

Overuse may also result in nasal dryness, sneezing, and throat irritation. Additionally, if a patient has underlying medical issues such as hypertension or diabetes, the use of oxymetazoline must be carefully monitored, and the patient should be advised to consult with a medical provider before use. Thus, the nurse should instruct the patient to follow the package's instructions carefully and not to exceed the recommended dosage and length of use to prevent any untoward effects.

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which should the nurse include when teaching the mother of a 9-month-old infant about administering liquid iron preparations? group of answer choices they should be given with meals. alllow preparation to mix with saliva and bathe the teeth before swallowing. they should be stopped immediately if nausea and vomiting occur. adequate dosage will turn the stools a dark tarry green color.

Answers

Turn the stools a dark tarry green color indicates adequate dosage.

When teaching the mother of a 9-month-old infant about administering liquid iron preparations, the nurse should include the following points: The infant should be given iron preparations with meals to enhance absorption and minimize gastrointestinal irritation. Always use a dropper or medicine cup to administer liquid iron preparations. Do not mix with saliva or allow them to bathe the teeth before swallowing the preparation. Stop iron therapy and contact the provider if nausea, vomiting, or other adverse effects occur. Turn the stools a dark tarry green color indicates adequate dosage.

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telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia will be especially prominent in which location?

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Telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) will be especially prominent in the tongue, lips, and gingiva.

The autosomal dominant genetic condition, Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia (HHT) causes abnormalities of blood vessels that can lead to recurrent bleeding, iron deficiency anemia, and arteriovenous malformations (AVMs).

Telangiectasia is one of the primary manifestations of the HHT syndrome. These are tiny, thin-walled, vascular dilations that can occur anywhere on the skin or mucous membranes. Telangiectasias occur mostly on the tongue, lips, and gingiva in the oral mucosa for patients with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia.The size and frequency of these lesions can vary from person to person. They can range from pinpoint-size to several millimeters in size. They can be sporadic or occur in groups and might appear as bright red, flat, pinpoint dots.

Telangiectasias usually occur in the mucosal lining of the mouth, nose, and conjunctiva. Recurrent epistaxis, or nosebleeds, is one of the most common symptoms of the disease and can be a result of telangiectasia formation in the nasal mucosa.

Telangiectasias can also occur in other internal organs, such as the lungs, liver, and brain, and can lead to complications such as stroke, bleeding, and anemia. HHT is a rare condition, but it is important to diagnose early to prevent complications and manage symptoms. Patients with HHT should be monitored regularly by a multidisciplinary team, including hematologists, otolaryngologists, gastroenterologists, and pulmonologists. Treatment for HHT can include iron supplementation, laser therapy to remove telangiectasias, and surgical interventions to treat AVMs.

In conclusion, telangiectasias of the oral mucosa for a patient with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia will be especially prominent in the tongue, lips, and gingiva.

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the nursing instructor is teaching about a new emerging bacteria that has both natural and acquired resistance and that affects the severely ill, immunocompromised clients in intensive care, transplant, and some cancer treatment units. this is which?

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It is of utmost importance to keep the environment clean and take measures to prevent transmission, especially in healthcare settings, to avoid it from spreading further.

The emerging bacteria that has both natural and acquired resistance and affects severely ill, immuno - compromised clients in intensive care, transplant, and some cancer treatment units is Acinetobacter baumannii. Acinetobacter baumannii is a gram-negative bacterium, a new emerging bacteria that has both natural and acquired resistance. It affects severely ill, immunocompromised clients in intensive care, transplant, and some cancer treatment units. The infection caused by Acinetobacter baumannii is often severe and hard to treat because it has developed a resistance to most antibiotics. Hence, it is of utmost importance to keep the environment clean and take measures to prevent transmission, especially in healthcare settings, to avoid it from spreading further.

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a nurse preceptor is reviewing documentation by a new nurse. which chart entry would require the preceptor to provide instruction about appropriate notation?

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As a nurse preceptor, it is your job to ensure that all chart entries are appropriately documented. Proper documentation is essential to the healthcare industry, and it is necessary for providing high-quality care. One chart entry that might require you to provide instruction on appropriate notation is medication documentation.

New nurses often require guidance on how to document medications correctly. This is because medications can have serious consequences if not administered or documented correctly. When documenting medications, a nurse should include the name of the medication, the dose, and the route of administration. Additionally, they should document the time the medication was administered and their signature or initials.

Furthermore, when documenting medications, it is also necessary to document any adverse reactions or medication errors that may occur. Finally, it is important to note that documenting the correct time the medication was administered is essential, especially for time-sensitive medications. By ensuring that new nurses understand how to document medications appropriately, you can help ensure that the patients receive high-quality care. Overall, it is essential to provide instruction to new nurses when reviewing their chart entries to avoid any potential errors.

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methylergonovine has been prescribed for a client who is at risk for postpartum bleeding in the immediate postpartum period. the nurse preparing to administer the medication ensures that which priority item is at the bedside?

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Methylergonovine is a medicine that is used to prevent and treat severe bleeding after giving birth (postpartum hemorrhage) in women.

The nurse preparing to administer the medication ensures that the emergency cart is at the bedside as the priority item when methylergonovine has been prescribed for a client who is at risk for postpartum bleeding in the immediate postpartum period. Methylergonovine is a medicine that is used to prevent and treat severe bleeding after giving birth (postpartum hemorrhage) in women. It belongs to a class of drugs known as ergot alkaloids. It works by constricting blood vessels, reducing blood flow to the uterus and thereby reducing bleeding. An emergency cart or crash cart is a wheeled cabinet or chest of drawers that contains life-saving drugs, defibrillators, and other resuscitation devices. A code team, which is a team of medical professionals trained in emergency medicine, carries it to the bedside of a critically ill patient to provide immediate treatment. The emergency cart is a priority item that should always be present at the bedside during medication administration. It is particularly crucial during the administration of medicines that have the potential to cause severe adverse effects or when managing high-risk clients. The emergency cart should be readily accessible to the nurse administering the medication to ensure quick access to life-saving medications in the event of an emergency.

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A client complains of vertigo. The nurse anticipates that the client may have a problem with which portion of the ear?

a. External ear
b. Middle ear
c. Inner ear
d. Tympanic membrane

Answers

The nurse anticipates that the client may have a problem with the inner ear (c). The correct option is C.

Vertigo is often associated with issues related to the inner ear, specifically the balance and vestibular system.

The inner ear contains structures such as the semicircular canals and the vestibular nerve, which play a crucial role in maintaining balance and detecting changes in head position and movement.

Problems in the inner ear, such as infections, inflammation, or disorders affecting these structures, can result in symptoms of vertigo, which is characterized by a spinning or dizzy sensation.

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a nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery you seem worried. are you concerned that someone may see you without your teeth?

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The nurse's concern should be focused on providing the best possible care for the patient, not on their personal appearance. The patient's comment is inappropriate and should be addressed, but it should not affect the nurse's ability to provide care.

The nurse is responsible for caring for the patient before, during, and after surgery. It is important for them to make sure that the patient feels comfortable and prepared for the procedure. The comment made by the patient about the nurse's teeth is inappropriate and may make the nurse feel self-conscious.
It is important for the nurse to remain professional and not let the patient's comment affect their ability to provide care. The nurse can address the patient's concerns about the upcoming surgery and ensure that they have all the necessary information and resources to feel prepared.
It is also important for the nurse to communicate with the patient about appropriate behavior and language. The patient may not have intended to offend the nurse, but it is important for them to understand that their comment was inappropriate.
In addition to providing care for the patient, the nurse should also take care of themselves. If the comment made by the patient is causing the nurse to feel self-conscious or uncomfortable, they should speak to a colleague or supervisor for support.
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which agency recommends that all pregnant women should be screened for common infections and treated if infected? group of answer choices national institutes of health centers for disease control and prevention american medical association world health organization

Answers

The correct answer is Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

CDC recommends that all pregnant women should be screened for common infections and treated if infected. CDC is a federal agency of the United States government that is responsible for the control and prevention of infectious diseases, environmental health, occupational health and safety, health promotion, injury prevention, and public health. The organization is headquartered in Atlanta, Georgia. It is part of the United States Department of Health and Human Services (HHS).Pregnant women are at a higher risk of getting some infections due to changes in their immune system, hormones, and body. Some of the infections can be passed from mother to baby during pregnancy or delivery and may cause serious complications for both the mother and baby. Screening and treating pregnant women for common infections can help prevent complications and ensure healthy pregnancies and babies. Hence, The correct answer is Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

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a newborn infant of a postnatal client who has human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) infection is tested for the presence of hiv antibodies. an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (elisa) is performed, and the results are positive. which is the correct interpretation of these results?

Answers

A Western blot, HIV DNA polymerase chain reaction (PCR), or viral culture tests are typically used to verify the existence of HIV infection in newborn infants.

The correct interpretation of the results of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) performed on a newborn infant of a postnatal client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and tested for the presence of HIV antibodies is that the infant has acquired maternal antibodies, and thus additional testing is needed to confirm the presence of HIV infection. ELISA tests for the detection of HIV antibodies are used to screen newborn infants of HIV-infected mothers. If the test results are positive, it may be because the newborn infant has acquired maternal antibodies, so additional testing is needed to confirm the presence of HIV infection. A positive HIV ELISA test result in a newborn infant of a postnatal client who has HIV infection suggests the infant has acquired maternal antibodies and thus additional testing is needed to confirm the presence of HIV infection. As a result, additional testing is required to determine whether the infant is HIV-positive or HIV-negative. A Western blot, HIV DNA polymerase chain reaction (PCR), or viral culture tests are typically used to verify the existence of HIV infection in newborn infants.

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when assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. you should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then:

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When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular, you should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then prepare for the ECG or electrocardiogram.

It is recommended that patients with a history of chest pain or other symptoms suggestive of acute coronary syndrome should have an ECG within 10 minutes of arrival in the emergency department to determine the cause of their symptoms. During an ECG, electrodes (small, plastic patches) are attached to the patient's chest, arms, and legs. These electrodes detect the electrical signals generated by the heart and transmit them to a machine that prints out a graph or displays the information on a screen. An ECG can reveal any damage to the heart, such as that caused by a heart attack, as well as any irregular heartbeats (arrhythmias).Furthermore, the following steps should be taken into consideration while examining the patient with chest pain:

Provide supplemental oxygen as required: Pulse oximetry can be used to assess the need for and adequacy of oxygen therapy. Early oxygenation of chest pain patients can have a positive impact on their prognosis and the outcome of their care. Administering aspirin: An adult dose of 300 mg should be given as soon as possible to patients with suspected acute coronary syndrome who are not hypersensitive to aspirin. Providing nitroglycerin: Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator that can help to reduce pain and improve coronary blood flow. Its use should be avoided in patients with hypotension or other contraindications. Finally, it is important to remain calm and reassuring to the patient while conducting the examination.

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the postpartum nurse is caring for a client who just delivered a healthy newborn. the nurse would be most concerned about the presence of subinvolution if which occurs?

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The postpartum nurse would be most concerned about the presence of subinvolution if prolonged and persistent lochia occurs in a client who just delivered a healthy newborn. Subinvolution is a condition that occurs when the uterus fails to return to its non-pregnant size after delivery.

It is characterized by prolonged and persistent lochia, which is a discharge that occurs after childbirth and is composed of blood, mucus, and uterine tissue. This discharge usually lasts for about four to six weeks after delivery and gradually decreases in amount and color over time. The postpartum nurse plays a crucial role in monitoring the client's recovery after delivery, including the process of involution. Subinvolution can lead to complications such as postpartum hemorrhage, infection, and sepsis.

Therefore, the nurse must be vigilant in assessing for signs of subinvolution, such as prolonged and persistent lochia, fundal height above the expected level, and boggy or soft uterus. The nurse may also perform diagnostic tests such as an ultrasound to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes of abnormal uterine bleeding. Subinvolution is treated with medications such as oxytocin or methylergonovine to stimulate uterine contractions and promote involution. The nurse may also encourage the client to breastfeed, which can help stimulate uterine contractions through the release of oxytocin. If the client does not respond to conservative treatment, surgical intervention such as a dilation and curettage (D&C) may be necessary.

In conclusion, the postpartum nurse should be most concerned about the presence of subinvolution if prolonged and persistent lochia occurs in a client who just delivered a healthy newborn. This is because subinvolution can lead to complications that can be life-threatening if left untreated. Therefore, the nurse must be vigilant in assessing for signs of subinvolution and providing prompt treatment to prevent further complications.

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which of the following conditions is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain and is characterized by loss of muscle control? group of answer choices fibromyalgia epilepsy parkinson's disease lupus

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The condition caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain and characterized by loss of muscle control is epilepsy. Option B

What is epilepsy?

A neurological condition called epilepsy causes recurring seizures as a result of aberrant electrical discharges in the brain. These seizures may cause a momentary loss of consciousness, control over muscle movement, or other neurological functions.

Individuals may have a variety of symptoms during a seizure, depending on the part of the brain that is being impacted by the aberrant electrical activity.

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Missing parts;

which of the following conditions is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain and is characterized by loss of muscle control? group of answer choices fibromyalgia

epilepsy

parkinson's disease

lupus

bronchodilators such as albuterol sulfate (ventolin) are a common pharmacological treatment for patients experiencing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd). about which common adverse effects would the nurse educate the patient

Answers

The nurse would educate the patient that they should report any severe or persistent headaches to their physician.

The common adverse effects for which the nurse would educate the patient, regarding bronchodilators such as Albuterol sulfate (Ventolin) which is a common pharmacological treatment for patients experiencing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), have been mentioned below: Adverse Effects: Tremors: This is one of the most common adverse effects of bronchodilators and they manifest as hand tremors or shakiness in patients. A nurse would educate the patient that these tremors will generally go away on their own, but if they are severe or persistent, the patient should report them to the physician. Palpitations: Palpitations or increased heart rate can also occur as an adverse effect of bronchodilators. The nurse should educate the patient that if the palpitations are accompanied by chest pain or shortness of breath, the patient should seek medical attention immediately. Nausea: Nausea is another common adverse effect that a patient might experience when taking bronchodilators. Headaches: Headaches are another common adverse effect that a patient might experience when taking bronchodilators. The nurse would educate the patient that they should report any severe or persistent headaches to their physician.

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which of the following can cause shock? a. bleeding b. bee sting c. heart attack d. all of the above

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All of the Above causes can lead to shock in our body.

Shock is a medical condition characterized by inadequate blood flow to meet the body's demands, leading to organ dysfunction.

Bleeding can cause significant loss of blood or fluids from the circulatory system, leading to a decrease in blood volume. This reduction in blood volume results in inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the body's tissues and organs leading to shock.

Bee stings can sometimes cause a severe allergic reaction known as anaphylaxis, which can lead to shock. Anaphylaxis is a systemic allergic reaction that occurs when the body's immune system overreacts to the venom injected by a bee sting.

Heart attack occurs when the blood supply to the heart muscle is severely reduced or completely blocked. Insufficient blood flow reduces oxygen delivery to vital organs, leading to shock.

a nurse is providing care to several assigned clients and decides to delegate the task of morning vital signs to unlicensed assistive personnel. the nurse would assume responsibility and refrain from delegating this task for which client?

Answers

The nurse would assume responsibility and refrain from delegating the task of morning vital signs for a patient who is unstable or whose vital signs are not within normal limits.

The nurse is responsible for delegating tasks to unlicensed assistive personnel, but the nurse also has to be responsible enough to decide which tasks can be delegated and to whom they can be delegated. While delegating tasks, the nurse should consider the health status of each patient. For instance, if a patient's vital signs are not within the normal limits, or if the patient's condition is unstable, the nurse would assume responsibility and refrain from delegating the task of morning vital signs to unlicensed assistive personnel. The nurse can delegate the task of morning vital signs to unlicensed assistive personnel for patients who are stable and do not have any critical health conditions. The nurse will supervise the work of unlicensed assistive personnel and ensure that they are performing the delegated tasks as per the standards and protocols. Thus, it is the responsibility of the nurse to make a decision that ensures the safety of the patients, regardless of the size of their caseload.

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a patient comes to her physician because she notices her stool has lost its brown appearance and now looks white. her skin and sclera have a yellow color. her blood is drawn and sent to the lab for analysis. what predictions could we make about her blood values (1st response)? and what could be the problem (second response)?

Answers

First response: The doctor will predict that the patient's blood test will show elevated bilirubin levels because of her yellow skin and sclera.

Since bilirubin is excreted from the liver and stored in the gallbladder, the white stool could indicate a blockage in the liver or bile ducts, preventing the normal processing and excretion of bilirubin. Second response: WORD COUNT 100The patient's problem could be caused by several underlying medical conditions that affect the liver, gallbladder, or bile ducts. Some of these conditions include hepatitis, cirrhosis, liver cancer, or primary biliary cirrhosis. Another possible cause is a blockage in the common bile duct due to a gallstone, inflammation, or tumor growth. In some cases, medication side effects or inherited metabolic disorders like Gilbert's syndrome may also cause similar symptoms. Further testing such as ultrasound, CT scan, or MRI may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

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a nurse correctly identifies which as contraindications and precautions when administering cephalosporins? select all that apply.

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Patients with renal or liver dysfunction, as well as pregnant women, require special precautions when receiving cephalosporins. Patients with a history of gastrointestinal diseases should be monitored closely while receiving cephalosporins since they can cause gastrointestinal disturbances

Cephalosporins are bactericidal antibiotics used to treat a wide range of infections caused by gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. They are similar to penicillin in structure and function and are classified into generations, with each generation being more potent than the previous one. Some of the contraindications and precautions when administering cephalosporins are listed below:
Contraindications:
1. Hypersensitivity: Cephalosporins should not be used in patients with a known history of hypersensitivity to cephalosporins, penicillins, or other beta-lactams.
2. Renal impairment: Cephalosporins are primarily excreted by the kidneys, and their use in patients with renal impairment can lead to toxicity.
3. Bleeding disorders: Some cephalosporins can interfere with the normal clotting of blood, which may lead to bleeding in patients with bleeding disorders.
4. Pregnancy: Cephalosporins are generally considered safe for use in pregnancy, but caution should be taken while administering them, especially during the first trimester.
Precautions:
1. Cross-sensitivity: Patients who have a history of hypersensitivity to penicillins should be monitored closely while receiving cephalosporins as they may develop cross-sensitivity.
2. Gastrointestinal diseases: Cephalosporins can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, such as diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, especially in patients with a history of gastrointestinal diseases.
3. Liver dysfunction: Cephalosporins are metabolized in the liver, and their use in patients with liver dysfunction can lead to toxicity.
4. Renal function tests: Patients receiving cephalosporins should undergo regular renal function tests to monitor their kidney function.
Cephalosporins are antibiotics that are used to treat bacterial infections. Cephalosporins are available in a variety of strengths and generations, each of which is more effective than the previous one. Cephalosporins should not be used in patients who are hypersensitive to them, penicillins, or other beta-lactams. Cephalosporins can cause bleeding in patients with bleeding disorders. Finally, patients who have a history of hypersensitivity to penicillins should be closely while receiving cephalosporins since they may develop cross-sensitivity. In conclusion, while administering cephalosporins, the contraindications and precautions should be considered by the nurse.

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If the alcohol is still wet when a capillary puncture is made it can:
cause hemolysis of the specimen.
lead to errors in the testing process.
prevent round drops from forming.
all of the options are correct.

Answers

If the alcohol is still wet when a capillary puncture is made it can cause hemolysis of the specimen and lead to errors in the testing process.  it can cause hemolysis of the specimen, which can lead to errors in the testing process. When alcohol is applied to the skin, it can cause the skin to become dry, which can cause red blood cells to rupture when a capillary puncture is performed.

A capillary puncture is a medical procedure that involves collecting a small blood sample from a person's fingertip, heel, or earlobe. Capillary punctures are used to obtain small blood samples that can be tested in the laboratory to detect, diagnose, and manage a variety of health problems.

Hemolysis occurs when red blood cells rupture, releasing hemoglobin and other cellular components into the bloodstream. Hemolysis can occur for a variety of reasons, including inadequate specimen collection techniques, mechanical stress, and other factors that can cause cells to rupture.

it can cause hemolysis of the specimen, which can lead to errors in the testing process. When alcohol is applied to the skin, it can cause the skin to become dry, which can cause red blood cells to rupture when a capillary puncture is performed. If this happens, it can cause hemolysis of the specimen, which can lead to errors in the testing process.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following pulse characteristics should the nurse expect?

a. Slow
b. Not palpable
c. Irregular
d. Bounding

Answers

In a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should expect the pulse characteristic to be irregular . Atrial fibrillation is a cardiac arrhythmia characterized by rapid and disorganized electrical activity in the atria. So the right option is C.

Options a, b, and d are not typically associated with atrial fibrillation. The pulse in atrial fibrillation can vary in rate, but it is not necessarily slow . The pulse can still be palpable, although it may be difficult to accurately assess the rhythm due to its irregular nature. Bounding pulses , which are strong and forceful, are not commonly seen in atrial fibrillation. Instead, the pulse may feel rapid and irregular upon palpation.

It is important for the nurse to recognize the irregular pulse characteristic in atrial fibrillation as it can have implications for the client's hemodynamic status, treatment decisions, and management of associated symptoms.

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Which is a concern once medication costs become insurmountable for patients? Increased prescription volume Strained patient-physician relationship Medication non adherance. Over medicating

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Once medication costs become insurmountable for patients, a significant concern is medication non-adherence.

When patients are unable to afford their medications, they may be forced to skip doses, reduce dosage, or discontinue treatment altogether. This can lead to worsening of their condition, inadequate symptom management, and potential complications. Medication non-adherence is associated with negative health outcomes and increased healthcare costs. It can also strain the patient-physician relationship as patients may feel frustrated or discouraged by their inability to access the necessary medications. Therefore, addressing the affordability of medications is crucial to ensure patients can adhere to their prescribed treatment plans and achieve optimal health outcomes.

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