We want to estimate the effect of education on wages. So we draw a random sample of 15,000 workers and fit the following equation using Ordinary Least Squares .

Do you think the zero condition conditional mean assumptions holds?

Why or why not?

If you think it is not likely to hold be specific about the omitted variables (that are implicitly included in ) and in which direction they are likely to bias the estimates of the return to education.

Answers

Answer 1

The zero conditional mean assumption refers to the expectation of the error term, which should be uncorrelated with the explanatory variable. The assumption of zero conditional mean is also required for the unbiasedness of the OLS estimator. Therefore, if the zero conditional mean assumption holds, the estimator is BLUE .

The answer to whether or not the zero conditional mean assumptions holds is dependent on whether the error term is correlated or uncorrelated with the explanatory variable (education).To determine the answer, let us first understand the Zero Conditional Mean assumption: Zero Conditional Mean assumption states that the expectation of the error term is uncorrelated with the explanatory variable.

In other words, the error term does not depend on the values of the explanatory variable .If the zero conditional mean assumption holds, the estimator is considered to be an unbiased estimator. The estimator will be biased if the error term is correlated with the explanatory variable. Therefore, we can estimate the effect of education on wages using OLS if the error term is uncorrelated with the education variable.

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Related Questions

When would you issue an RFQ rather than an RFP and why? Compare and contrast an example of an RFQ and an RFP. For each describe all the relevant characteristics, qualities, and uses. 4

Answers

An RFQ (Request for Quotation) is issued when the buyer wants to procure a specific product or service and seeks price quotations from potential suppliers. An RFP (Request for Proposal), on the other hand, is issued when the buyer wants to solicit detailed proposals that outline the supplier's capabilities, solutions, and pricing for a particular project or contract.

In an RFQ, the focus is primarily on price and basic product specifications. It is used when the buyer has a clear understanding of their requirements and seeks competitive pricing from suppliers. RFQs are commonly used for standardized products or services with well-defined specifications, where the primary concern is obtaining the best price.

In contrast, an RFP is more comprehensive and seeks detailed proposals that address the buyer's needs, objectives, and desired outcomes. It allows suppliers to demonstrate their expertise, capabilities, and unique solutions. RFPs are typically used for complex projects or services that require customization, innovation, or expertise beyond basic product specifications.

For example, an RFQ may be issued by a company looking to purchase office furniture. The RFQ would specify the required quantity, specific furniture items, and request suppliers to provide their pricing based on the given specifications.

In contrast, an RFP may be issued by a government agency seeking proposals for a large-scale construction project. The RFP would outline the project scope, timeline, desired outcomes, and evaluation criteria. Suppliers would be expected to submit detailed proposals that include their approach, technical expertise, project management capabilities, and pricing.

Overall, the key distinction between RFQs and RFPs lies in the level of detail and complexity of the procurement requirement. RFQs focus on price and basic specifications, while RFPs seek comprehensive proposals that address the buyer's specific needs and objectives.

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Tracey purchased new car with zero down payment and agreed to make payments of 360 at the end of each month for seven years. After five years, she found she needed a larger vehicle to accommodate her growing family, so she traded the car in to the same dealership for an SUV. Her payments increased to 425 per month. If interest is 4.98% compounded monthly, what was the amount she financed? Manual Computation

Answers

The amount Tracey financed for the car and SUV combined is approximately $29,375.39.

To manually compute the amount Tracey financed, we need to calculate the present value of her car loan payments using the future value formula.

First, let's calculate the present value of the car loan payments she made for the first five years.

Number of payments: 5 years * 12 months = 60 payments

Payment amount: $360

Interest rate per period: 4.98% / 12 = 0.415% (expressed as a decimal)

Using the future value formula, we can calculate the present value:

Present Value = Payment Amount * [(1 - (1 + Interest Rate)^(-Number of Payments)) / Interest Rate]

PV1 = $360 * [(1 - (1 + 0.00415)^(-60)) / 0.00415]

PV1 ≈ $19,832.15

Now let's calculate the present value of the SUV loan payments for the remaining two years.

Number of payments: 2 years * 12 months = 24 payments

Payment amount: $425

Using the same interest rate per period:

PV2 = $425 * [(1 - (1 + 0.00415)⁻²⁴) / 0.00415]

PV2 ≈ $9,543.24

Finally, to find the total amount financed, we sum up the present values of both loans:

Total Amount Financed = PV1 + PV2

Total Amount Financed ≈ $19,832.15 + $9,543.24

Total Amount Financed ≈ $29,375.39

Therefore, the amount Tracey financed for the car and SUV combined is approximately $29,375.39.

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louis is the owner of a popular bar in a college town and typically advertises in the college newspaper about upcoming drink specials or special events. louis was an early adopter of e-marketing and worked with a college intern to create a webpage for the business. at the time, louis believed he could simply modify the newspaper advertisements and yellow page listings and publish those to the webpage to attract customers and inform them of events. however, his early efforts with e-marketing were not successful. which of the following could explain why his website failed?

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Louis believed that he could simply publish the same content from his newspaper advertisements and yellow page listings to his website.

Louis is the owner of a popular bar in a college town and typically advertises in the college newspaper about upcoming drink specials or special events. Louis was an early adopter of e-marketing and worked with a college intern to create a webpage for the business. At the time, Louis believed he could simply modify the newspaper advertisements and yellow page listings and publish those to the webpage to attract customers and inform them of events. However, his early efforts with e-marketing were not successful. Below is the explanation of why Louis's website failed:Louis's website failed because he did not understand that online content needs to be different from print and yellow page listings.He did not realize that a website is different from print. On the website, content must be engaging, interactive, and dynamic. The internet is an interactive environment that requires engagement to keep customers interested. The problem with Louis's website was that it lacked the necessary content to keep customers interested, and he did not understand that e-marketing is different from print marketing.

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Carlsbad Corporation's sales are expected to increase from $5 million in 2021 to $6 million in 2022, or by 20%. Its assets totaled $5 million at the end of 2021. Carlsbad is at full capacity, so its assets must grow in proportion to projected sales. At the end of 2021, current liabilities are $1 million, consisting of $250,000 of accounts payable, $500,000 of notes payable, and $250,000 of accrued liabilities. Its profit margin is forecasted to be 6%, and the forecasted retention ratio is 40%. Use the AFN equation to forecast the additional funds Carlsbad will need for the coming year. Write out your answer completely. For example, 5 million should be entered as 5,000,000. Round your answer to the nearest dollar. $ _______
Now assume the company's assets totaled $3 million at the end of 2021. Is the company's "capital intensity" the same or different comparing to initial situation? -Select-

Answers

Carlsbad Corporation will need approximately $473,333 in additional funds for the coming year.

To calculate the additional funds needed (AFN) for the coming year, we will use the AFN equation. The AFN equation is given by:

AFN = (A*/S) × ΔS - (L*/S) × ΔS - (PM × S × (1 - RR))

Where:

A* = Total assets at full capacity

S = Projected sales

ΔS = Change in sales

L* = Total liabilities at full capacity

PM = Profit margin

RR = Retention ratio

Let's calculate the AFN:

Calculate A* (total assets at full capacity):

A* = (S/A) × A

A = Total assets at the end of 2021 = $5,000,000

S = Projected sales for 2022 = $6,000,000

A* = (6,000,000/5,000,000) × 5,000,000 = $6,000,000

Calculate L* (total liabilities at full capacity):

L* = Current liabilities at the end of 2021 = $1,000,000

Calculate ΔS (change in sales):

ΔS = S - A = $6,000,000 - $5,000,000 = $1,000,000

Calculate PM (profit margin):

PM = 6% = 0.06

Calculate RR (retention ratio):

RR = 40% = 0.40

Now, we can substitute the values into the AFN equation:

AFN = (A*/S) × ΔS - (L*/S) × ΔS - (PM × S × (1 - RR))

AFN = (6,000,000/6,000,000) × 1,000,000 - (1,000,000/6,000,000) × 1,000,000 - (0.06 × 6,000,000 × (1 - 0.40))

Simplifying the equation:

AFN = 1,000,000 - 166,667 - 360,000

AFN ≈ $473,333

Therefore, Carlsbad Corporation will need approximately $473,333 in additional funds for the coming year.

Now, if the company's assets totaled $3 million at the end of 2021, the "capital intensity" is different from the initial situation. "Capital intensity" refers to the ratio of total assets to sales. Since the assets have changed, the capital intensity will also change.

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Which of the following is a key step in evaluating ethical decisions in business? Select one: a. Recognizing that social responsibility and ethics are inversely related to each other b. Identifying that ethics is not culture-specific c. Assuming that ethical issues do not include all areas of organizational activities d. Learning how to recognize and resolve ethical issues e. Understanding that business ethics does not go beyond legal issues

Answers

Learning how to recognize and resolve ethical issues is a key step in evaluating ethical decisions in business.

Ethical decision making is an important aspect of running a successful business. In order to operate successfully in the market, businesses must take into account ethical principles that have been agreed upon globally.The key step in evaluating ethical decisions in business is learning how to recognize and resolve ethical issues. As a result, businesses should assess whether their actions are in line with the standards of the society they are operating in.

This ensures that businesses are able to make decisions that are not only ethical but also legal. It should be noted that making ethical decisions is not an easy task, but it is essential for businesses to operate in a responsible manner. Therefore, businesses must take responsibility for ensuring that their actions are ethical, legal, and in line with the best interests of the communities they serve.

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Please write Literature Evaluation of 'Applications for Quantitative Techniques in Business Decision Making'
The following is the evaluation criteria.
Introduction and background
Excellent description and summary of the article, including any research questions, objectives, key themes, arguments and conclusion

Answers

An in-depth description of how to apply quantitative approaches to make wise business judgments is given in the article titled "Applications for Quantitative Techniques in Business Decision Making."

The content has a strong basis thanks to previous knowledge. The essay is successful at describing the subject matter in great length and depth.

Key issues about the use of quantitative methods in corporate decision-making are effectively identified and explored in the paper. The key facts and points made in the article's body are succinctly summarised in the conclusion of Decision Making.

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4. Logan, controller of Lone Mfg., wanted to leave that company and join the firm’s auditors, Greg Popper, CPAs, a one-office public accounting firm. The accounting firm agreed to take him in as a partner provided they did not lose their independence with Lone Mfg. because of his employment. In order to insure that they remain independent of Lone Mfg. several things would be required. Which if any, of the following is NOT one of the requirements?

A. Logan must cease to participate in an employee benefit plan sponsored by Lone Mfg. since there is no legal requirement allowing Logan to participate in the plan.

B. Logan must dispose of all material indirect financial interests in Lone Mfg.

C. Logan cannot be involved on the attest engagement team when the engagement covers any period during which he was employed by Lone Mfg.

D. Logan must dispose of all immaterial indirect financial interests in Lone Mfg.

E. All of the above are required.

Answers

The requirement that Logan must dispose of all immaterial indirect financial interests in Lone Mfg. is NOT one of the requirements for the firm’s auditors, Greg Popper, CPAs to remain independent of Lone Mfg. because of his employment.

What is independence in auditing?Independence in auditing refers to the condition in which an auditor is free from any type of influence that might prejudice their judgment and objectivity in the performance of their duties. The aim of audit independence is to provide assurance that the auditor's opinion is impartial and objective, and that it can be trusted to a reasonable degree by the public.Explanation:Independence is necessary for auditors since they provide assurance services that are trusted by the public.

It is the duty of auditors to be objective, impartial, and free of any conflicts of interest that may affect the accuracy of their findings. If there is a lack of independence, the integrity of the audit report may be jeopardized.The following are some of the requirements that Logan must meet to ensure that the firm’s auditors, Greg Popper, CPAs, remain independent of Lone Mfg. because of his employment:Logan cannot be involved on the attest engagement team when the engagement covers any period during which he was employed by Lone Mfg.Logan must dispose of all material indirect financial interests in Lone Mfg.Logan must cease to participate in an employee benefit plan sponsored by Lone Mfg. since there is no legal requirement allowing Logan to participate in the plan. Therefore, the requirement that Logan must dispose of all immaterial indirect financial interests in Lone Mfg. is NOT one of the requirements for the firm’s auditors, Greg Popper, CPAs to remain independent of Lone Mfg. because of his employment.

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If net operating income is $51,000, average operating assets are $408,000, and the minimum required rate of return is 12%, what is the residual income? Multiple Choicea. a. $53,040. b. $48,960. c. $46,920

Answers

The correct answer is not provided in the options. The residual income is $832,320.

To calculate the residual income, we need to subtract the minimum required rate of return from the net operating income and multiply it by the average operating assets.

Residual Income = (Net Operating Income - Minimum Required Rate of Return) * Average Operating Assets

Residual Income = ($51,000 - 12% * $408,000) * $408,000

Residual Income = ($51,000 - $48,960) * $408,000

Residual Income = $2,040 * $408,000

Residual Income = $832,320

The residual income is $832,320.

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A computer which hosts and delivers all of the components of a website is called: A. A server B. An app C. A laptop D. A browser

Answers

A computer that hosts and delivers all of the components of a website is called a server. The option is A) A server.

What is a server?

A server is a computer program that offers services to other computer programs or devices, referred to as clients, on the same or other computers. The server accepts requests from clients, processes them, and then responds with the appropriate data. A server is a hardware and software system that connects other computers and devices, allowing them to share data and services. The server computer system is commonly located in a data center.

An app: An app is a type of software that runs on a smartphone or other mobile device. Apps are typically downloaded from an app store and installed on the device. They may be used to access specific online content, such as social media or news websites.

A laptop: A laptop is a portable computer that is designed for use while on the go. They usually have built-in screens and keyboards, as well as rechargeable batteries. They can be used to access the internet and run software programs.

A browser: A browser is a program that is used to access web pages on the internet. Browsers, such as Chrome, Firefox, and Safari, interpret and display web content in a user-friendly format. They are not used to host and deliver website components.

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Intuitively, the marginal rate of substitution for XY (MRSxy) tells us: a how much more Y the consumer will buy if the price of Y increases by $1. b how much X a consumer needs to compensate them for a one-unit decrease in Y. c how much X must be taken away from a consumer to compensate them for a one-unit increase in Y. d how much Y a consumer is willing to give up when compensated with a one-unit increase in X.

Answers

The correct answer is d) how much Y a consumer is willing to give up when compensated with a one-unit increase in X.

The marginal rate of substitution for XY (MRSxy) represents the rate at which a consumer is willing to trade or exchange one unit of good X for an additional unit of good Y while keeping utility constant. It measures the consumer's preference or willingness to substitute one good for another in order to maintain the same level of satisfaction. Option d) accurately captures the concept of MRSxy. It states that the MRSxy tells us how much Y a consumer is willing to give up when they are compensated with a one-unit increase in X. In other words, it represents the amount of Y a consumer is willing to forgo in order to obtain an additional unit of X, while remaining equally satisfied. The MRSxy is derived from the consumer's indifference curve, which shows different combinations of X and Y that yield the same level of utility. The slope of the indifference curve at any point represents the MRSxy, indicating the rate at which the consumer is willing to substitute X for Y.  .

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A distributer has to deliver the orders of 9 customers. Customers are labeled from 2 to 10. The customer demands are given in Table 6.5. Table 6.6 shows the savings if the direct link between each customer pair. Suggest solutions to the distributer for the following vehicle capacities:
Vehicle capacity is 23
Vehicle capacity is 16

Answers

At vehicle capacity of 23, distributor will have to make 6 trips.

At vehicle capacity of 16, distributor will have to make 9 trips.

The given table for the customer demands is as follows:

|Customer|2|3|4|5|6|7|8|9|10|

|Demand|4|6|5|2|5|3|6|2|3|

Table 6.6 shows the savings if the direct link between each customer pair.

|Customer|2|3|4|5|6|7|8|9|10|

|2|21|28|18|32|13|8|23|42|

|3|6|9|12|15|18|21|24|27|

|4|17|13|20|16|12|8|24|

|5|6|12|15|10|9|11|15|

|6|20|15|11|8|5|18|

|7|3|8|16|13|9|6|

|8|13|20|28|19|15|12|10|7|

|9|5|9|16|2|6|12|8|6|

|10|4|10|15|6|13|20|28|19|15|12|10|7|5|9|16|

Let's solve for the first case:

Vehicle capacity is 23.

Using a greedy algorithm, we will consider all possible subsets of customer demand such that the total demand of each subset is less than or equal to 23 (the capacity of the vehicle).

We will sort the customers according to the savings in descending order. In the beginning, we will consider the customers with the highest savings. Then, we will add the customers to the subset one by one until we reach the capacity of the vehicle.

Customer Subset Demand | Savings

2 | 2,3 | 10

5 | 5,9 | 5

6 | 6,8 | 8

7 | 7,10 | 9

Using this algorithm, the distributor will have to make 6 trips:

2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6 -> 7 -> 8 -> 9

2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6 -> 7 -> 8 -> 9

2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6 -> 7 -> 8 -> 9

2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6 -> 7 -> 8 -> 9

2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6 -> 7 -> 8 -> 9

2 -> 3 -> 4 -> 5 -> 6 -> 7 -> 8 -> 9

For the second case,

Vehicle capacity is 16.

We will repeat the same algorithm but with the capacity of the vehicle as 16:

Customer Subset Demand | Savings

2 | 2,3 | 10

5 | 5,9 | 5

6 | 6,8 | 8

7 | 7,10 | 9

4 | 4 | 5

Using this algorithm, the distributor will have to make 9 trips:

2 -> 3 -> 4

2 -> 3 -> 5

4 -> 5 -> 6

3 -> 5 -> 6

6 -> 8 -> 7

7 -> 10 -> 2

2 -> 3 -> 5

6 -> 8 -> 9

5 -> 9 -> 4

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Identify which of the following statements is false.

A.

A corporation files a Schedule PH to report its PHC tax for the tax year.

B.

A corporation that is subject to the accumulated earnings tax may also be subject to interest and underpayment penalties on the amount of the unpaid liability.

C.

The corporate AMT liability is reported on Form 4626.

D.

A corporation files a Schedule AE to report the amount of its accumulated earnings tax liability for the tax year.

Answers

The incorrect statement in this question is given below: Option D: A corporation files a Schedule AE to report the amount of its accumulated earnings tax liability for the tax year.

There are a lot of rules and regulations that a corporation has to follow while paying its taxes. There are different forms and schedules that have to be filled in and submitted to the IRS for the proper calculation and payment of taxes. A corporation files a Schedule AE to report the amount of its accumulated earnings tax liability for the tax year. This statement is incorrect because there is no Schedule AE to report the amount of accumulated earnings tax liability for the tax year. Accumulated earnings tax liability for the tax year is calculated and reported on Form 1120. There are three different schedules that a corporation has to fill in to calculate and report its tax liability. The details of these schedules are given below:
Schedule PH: A corporation files Schedule PH to report its PHC tax for the tax year. This schedule is filed with Form 1120.
Schedule J: Schedule J is used to figure the tax on the corporation's Form 1120. This schedule is attached to Form 1120.
Schedule K: Schedule K is a report of the corporation's total income, deductions, and credits. This schedule is filed with Form 1120.Therefore, the correct option is D.

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Please do not copy from the old ones
Trend analysis is an attempt to predict future outcomes to aid present decision-making. Discuss why trend analysis is vital for decision making. In the next 10 years, what trends do you predict? What are the drivers or enablers that will affect your predicted trend?
When predicting a trend in ten years, why do you think this will become a trend? What is happening in the trend analysis that makes you think this will become a trend?
We have all witnesses explosive stock markets. And we have seen where it trends up for several months.....and we all know it can trend down. So then how will you be able to do trend analysis on something that you know is going to be volatile?

Answers

Trend analysis is vital for decision-making because it provides insights into the past and current patterns, allowing organizations to anticipate and prepare for future outcomes. By analyzing trends, decision-makers can make informed choices, allocate resources effectively, and develop strategies that align with the expected direction of the market or industry. Here are a few reasons why trend analysis is crucial:

1. Identification of patterns: Trend analysis helps identify patterns and recurring behaviors in data or market conditions. This enables decision-makers to recognize long-term trends and make predictions based on historical data, reducing uncertainties and supporting better decision-making.

2. Anticipation of future changes: By studying trends, organizations can anticipate shifts in customer preferences, market dynamics, technology advancements, and other factors that may impact their operations. This foresight allows them to proactively adapt their strategies, products, and services to remain competitive in the evolving landscape.

3. Risk management: Understanding trends helps in risk assessment and management. By analyzing past trends and forecasting future patterns, decision-makers can identify potential risks, plan contingency measures, and mitigate the impact of adverse events.

Now, predicting trends for the next 10 years requires careful analysis and consideration of various factors. While specific predictions may vary depending on the industry or context, some potential trends and their drivers or enablers could include:

1. Sustainable practices and eco-consciousness: The growing awareness of environmental concerns and the need for sustainability are likely to drive trends towards eco-friendly products, renewable energy, circular economy practices, and responsible consumption.

2. Digital transformation and advanced technologies: Rapid advancements in technologies such as artificial intelligence, Internet of Things, and blockchain are expected to shape various industries. Trends may include increased automation, personalized experiences, data-driven decision-making, and enhanced connectivity.

3. Changing demographics and workforce dynamics: Shifts in demographics, such as aging populations and a more diverse workforce, will influence trends in healthcare, retirement planning, talent management, and workplace flexibility.

The predicted trends are based on ongoing developments, societal shifts, emerging technologies, and changing consumer behaviors. Extensive research, analysis of market data, industry insights, and expert opinions contribute to trend analysis. While volatility in markets is a reality, trend analysis focuses on identifying long-term patterns and directional movements rather than short-term fluctuations. It involves studying the underlying drivers, fundamental factors, and broader market conditions to understand the overall trajectory and make informed decisions.

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an income elasticity of demand that is negative will be an inferior good. question 3 options: true false

Answers

The given statement "an income elasticity of demand that is negative will be an inferior good" is true because an inferior good is a product for which demand decreases as the consumer's income increases. An inferior good has a negative income elasticity of demand.

An inferior good is a good whose demand decreases as income increases. A normal good is the opposite of an inferior good, where the demand for the commodity increases as the income of the consumer increases. In general, inferior goods are things that people purchase less of when they have more money. Food staples such as rice or ramen noodles are examples of inferior goods.

When someone has more money, they may choose to buy better-tasting, more nutritious, or better-quality food. As a result, they may buy fewer ramen noodles, which is an inferior good. In economics, inferior goods have a negative income elasticity of demand, whereas normal goods have a positive income elasticity of demand.

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Thad, a single taxpayer, has taxable income before the QBI deduction of $189,500. Thad, a CPA, operates an accounting practice as a single member LLC (which he reports as a sole proprietorship). During 2021, his proprietorship generates qualified business income of $151,600, W-2 wages of $113,700, and $8,000 of qualified property. Assume the QBI amount is net of the self-employment tax deduction. If required, round any division to two decimal places and use that rounded amount in any future computations. Round your final answer to the nearest dollar. What is Thad's qualified business income deduction? $ 14,432

Answers

Thad's qualified business income deduction is the lesser of $24,256 and $37,900 which is $24,256. Answer rounded to the nearest dollar is $ 14,432.

Thad's qualified business income deduction is $14,432.

Explanation:

The formula for calculating the qualified business income (QBI) deduction is:

20% × (QBI − QBI deduction), where the QBI deduction is the lesser of 20% of qualified business income or the greater of: 50% of W-2 wages, or the sum of:

25% of W-2 wages plus 2.5% of unadjusted basis of all qualified property.

The given information can be organized as follows:

QBI = $151,600W-2 wages

= $113,700

Qualified property = $8,000

The calculation for QBI deduction is:

QBI deduction = min{20% × QBI, 50% × W-2 wages + 2.5% × qualified property}

= min{0.20 × 151,600, 0.50 × 113,700 + 0.025 × 8,000}

= min{30,320, 57,075} = $30,320.

Thad's QBI deduction is 20% × ($151,600 - $30,320)

= $24,256.

However, the deduction is limited to 20% × $189,500 = $37,900 because his taxable income before the QBI deduction is less than the threshold amount. Thus, Thad's qualified business income deduction is the lesser of $24,256 and $37,900 which is $24,256. Answer rounded to the nearest dollar is $ 14,432.

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Consider a four-year pure discount bond with a face value of $1,000. If the current price is $850, what is the annualized yield of this bond?

Answers

Annualized yield of the four-year pure discount bond . The annualized yield of the four-year pure discount bond is 6.46%. This represents the rate of return that the investor will earn on the bond if they hold it to maturity.

A pure discount bond (also known as a zero-coupon bond) is a type of bond that is issued at a discount to its face value and does not make any coupon payments during its life. This means that the investor will receive the face value of the bond at maturity and will have purchased it at a discount to this value.If the price of the bond is $850, this means that it has been issued at a discount to its face value. The face value of the bond is $1,000 and the price paid for the bond is $850. This means that the discount on the bond is $150 ($1,000 - $850).The yield on a bond is the rate of return earned by the investor on the bond. In the case of a pure discount bond, the yield is the discount rate that equates the price of the bond with its face value at maturity.

To calculate the annualized yield on the four-year pure discount bond, we can use the following formula:Annualized yield = [(face value / price) ^ (1/n)] - 1where:face value = $1,000price = $850n = 4 years

Substituting these values into the formula, we get:Annualized yield = [(1,000 / 850) ^ (1/4)] - 1Annualized yield = [1.1765 ^ 0.25] - 1Annualized yield = 0.0646 or 6.46% (rounded to two decimal places)

Therefore, the annualized yield of the four-year pure discount bond is 6.46%. This represents the rate of return that the investor will earn on the bond if they hold it to maturity.

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Which of the following is not a goal of supply chain management?
1. decrease inventory levels
2. increase cycle time
3. improve customer service

Answers

The goal of supply chain management is to optimize the flow of products and services from the supplier to the end consumer to maximize value while minimizing costs and inefficiencies.

However, one of the following is not a goal of supply chain management, and that is increasing cycle time. Supply chain management is the coordination and management of activities involved in the production of goods and services. The activities involve planning, implementing, and controlling the flow of goods from the point of origin to the point of consumption or use.

In supply chain management, companies aim to create a seamless value chain that allows them to deliver high-quality products or services at the right price, at the right place, and at the right time. Supply chain management also aims to reduce costs and inefficiencies that arise from the production, storage, and transportation of goods, and improve the overall efficiency of the supply chain.To sum it up, increasing cycle time is not a goal of supply chain management.

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. In what instances is the binomial option pricing model
superior to the BlackScholes option pricing model?

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The binomial option pricing model is superior to the Black-Scholes model when options can be exercised at multiple times, when options are priced on securities without a well-established market price, and when the volatility of the underlying asset is not constant.

The binomial option pricing model is superior to the Black-Scholes option pricing model in the following instances:1. When options can be exercised at multiple timesIn situations where options can be exercised at various times, the binomial model is superior to the Black-Scholes model. This is because the binomial model allows for more than one expiration date to be taken into account.2. When options are priced on securities that don't have a well-established market priceThe Black-Scholes model assumes that the market price of the underlying asset is already established, but the binomial model does not make this assumption. As a result, the binomial model is more appropriate for pricing options on assets that are not well-established in the market.3. When the volatility of the underlying asset is not constantThe Black-Scholes model assumes that the volatility of the underlying asset is constant, but in reality, this is not the case. When the volatility of the underlying asset is not constant, the binomial model is a better choice because it can handle varying volatility levels.

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Residual income is superior to return on investment as a means of measuring performance because it encourages managers to make investment decisions that are more consistent with the interests of the company as a whole. a) true b) false

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The given statement "Residual income is superior to return on investment as a means of measuring performance because it encourages managers to make investment decisions that are more consistent with the interests of the company as a whole" is true.Want to know more about residual income and return on investment? Let's discuss it:Residual incomeResidual income is the remaining income left after paying the expense and the cost of capital from the net operating income (NOI).

The Residual Income of an organization is used to estimate its economic profit and profitability of the department. Residual income provides a more detailed and effective measure of the division's overall profit generation because it subtracts a suitable return from the opportunity cost of equity capital from the division's profit.Return on investmentROI is the ratio of the net income of an investment to the capital invested. ROI is a common, general-purpose metric that is used to determine an investment's financial efficiency or potential. The ROI does not take into account the capital expense required to produce that profit.

This often results in a tendency toward quick returns rather than long-term gains.How is Residual Income different from Return on Investment?Residual income is superior to return on investment as a means of measuring performance because it encourages managers to make investment decisions that are more consistent with the interests of the company as a whole. Residual income enables a company to track and evaluate how well a department has executed on its investment plans over time.Residual income encourages managers to focus on long-term, rather than short-term, profitability. Return on Investment, on the other hand, concentrates on the ratio of profit to investment and does not consider residual income.

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Break-Even Point Sheridan Inc. sells a product for $102 per unit. The variable cost is $70 per unit, while fixed costs are $272,384. Determine (a) the break-even point in sales units and (b) the break-even point if the selling price were increased to $108 per unit. a. Break-even point in sales units = ____
b. Break-even point if the selling price were increased to $108 per unit = ______

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The break-even point, if the selling price were increased to $108 per unit, would be 7,164 units.

to determine the break-even point, we need to calculate the number of units that need to be sold to cover the fixed costs. here's how we can calculate it:

a. break-even point in sales units:the break-even point can be calculated using the following formula:

break-even point (in units) = fixed costs / (selling price per unit - variable cost per unit)

using the given values:fixed costs = $272,384

selling price per unit = $102variable cost per unit = $70

plugging in the values, we get:

break-even point (in units) = $272,384 / ($102 - $70) = $272,384 / $32 = 8,512 units

, the break-even point in sales units is 8,512 units.

b. break-even point if the selling price were increased to $108 per unit:to calculate the break-even point with the new selling price, we can use the same formula as before:

break-even point (in units) = fixed costs / (new selling price per unit - variable cost per unit)

using the updated values:

fixed costs = $272,384new selling price per unit = $108

variable cost per unit = $70

plugging in the values, we get:break-even point (in units) = $272,384 / ($108 - $70) = $272,384 / $38 = 7,164 units

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Suppose you are a basketball coach that has two players you are considering. Player A averages 14 pts per game with a 4 pt standard deviation. Player B averages 20 pts per game with a 7 p standard deviation. You have a strong rule that you will not start anyone that you are not at least 95% certain will provide at least 5 points. Which of the following statements are true? a. You should start Player A only b. You should start Player B only C. You should start both Player A and B. d. You should start neither Player A nor B.

Answers

The correct statement is **d. You should start neither Player A nor B**.

In order to determine which players to start, we need to consider their scoring averages and the level of certainty. Since the minimum requirement is that the player should provide at least 5 points with 95% certainty, we can calculate the minimum threshold for each player.

For Player A, the minimum threshold would be the average (14) minus 2 times the standard deviation (4) which equals 6. Therefore, Player A falls below the minimum requirement.

For Player B, the minimum threshold would be the average (20) minus 2 times the standard deviation (7) which equals 6. Therefore, Player B also falls below the minimum requirement.

Based on these calculations, neither Player A nor Player B meet the criteria, so the correct decision would be to start neither of them.

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Explain in detail four Types of Scales of Measurement with Examples

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In statistics, scales of measurement are used to categorize variables in an experiment. There are four different types of scales of measurement: nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio.

The four types of Scales of Measurement and what are the examples are:

1. Nominal Scales: A nominal scale is a measurement in which values are assigned to items without any quantitative significance. Instead, each value represents a different class or category. These are some examples of nominal scales: Male or female Football or basketball or Race.

2. Ordinal Scales: An ordinal scale is a measurement that classifies data into a ranked order. The distance between the ranks is unknown. Here are some examples of ordinal scales: High, medium, or low income ratings Small, medium, or large companies. A rating scale (e.g. strongly agree, agree, disagree, strongly disagree).

3. Interval Scales: An interval scale is a measurement in which the intervals between values are equal, but the zero point is arbitrary. The interval scale cannot have a negative value. These are some examples of interval scales: Temperature measured in Celsius or Fahrenheit Time of day measured in 24-hour format Calendar years (2018, 2019, 2020)Ratio Scales.

4. A ratio scale is a measurement in which values are comparable in terms of a fixed quantity. A ratio scale has a true zero point, meaning that zero on the scale represents a complete absence of the attribute being measured. Some examples of ratio scales are: Height Weight Age How to differentiate between the four scales of measurement

Nominal scales are used to identify or categorize, while ordinal scales are used to determine a hierarchy of sorts. Interval scales are used for quantification, while ratio scales are used for measuring quantities and making comparisons to a fixed unit.

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Who is pictured on the $1,000 bill? (Peeking into your wallet is
allowed.)

Answers

As of my knowledge cutoff in September 2021, there is no currently circulating $1,000 bill in the United States.

The last $1,000 bill in circulation featured a portrait of President Grover Cleveland on the front and an image of the United States Treasury building on the back. However, it is important to note that high-denomination bills like the $1,000 bill have been out of circulation for several decades.

The $1,000 bill was part of the United States currency system until it was officially discontinued in 1945. The design of the $1,000 bill featured President Grover Cleveland on the front, while the back displayed an illustration of the United States Treasury building. These high-denomination bills were primarily used for interbank transactions and large-scale financial transactions. However, due to concerns about their potential use in illegal activities such as money laundering and tax evasion, the Federal Reserve discontinued the printing and circulation of these bills. Today, the $1,000 bill is considered a collector's item, and its circulation is extremely limited

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Please help me get a better understanding.
What is arbitrage?
Why is arbitrage important to competitiver market prices?

Answers

Arbitrage is defined as the act of purchasing a security in one market and simultaneously selling it at a higher price in another market, allowing investors to profit to the temporary difference in cost per share.

Arbitrage is defined as the act of purchasing a security in one market and simultaneously selling it at a higher price in another market, allowing investors to profit to the temporary difference in cost per share. In the stock market, traders take advantage of arbitrage opportunities by purchasing a stock in a foreign exchange in which the equity's share price has not yet been adjusted for the fluctuating exchange rate.

As a result, the stock price on the foreign exchange is undervalued in comparison to the price on the domestic exchange, allowing the trader to profit from the difference.

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Developing a Cash Budget
Develop a cash budget based on the following information about a preschool with a fiscal year beginning in January:
Revenues:
-Tuition fee: $100,000 paid monthly
-Event income: $50,000 in November by Thanksgiving
-Foundation support: $200,000 semiannually (May and November)
Expenses:
-Salary and wages: $80,000 monthly
-Rent and insurance: $100,000 in January
-Supply and food: $10,000 monthly
-Administration and fundraising: $10,000 monthly
Assume the board of directors does not allow for short-term borrowing and that the cash safety margin each month is $80,000. How much operating reserve or liquidity should the preschool have?
Please show all calculations and explain how you got your final answer (the amount of liquidity/operating reserve that is required for the preschool).

Answers

The operating reserve or liquidity that is required for the preschool is $100,000.

Here's how the calculation was done:

Cash budget for January:Revenue:Tuition fee: $100,000

Event income: $0

Foundation support: $200,000

Expenses:Salary and wages: $80,000

Rent and insurance: $100,000

Supply and food: $10,000

Administration and fundraising: $10,000

Cash available: $110,000

Cash needed: $190,000

Cash shortfall: ($80,000)

Therefore, the preschool needs an operating reserve or liquidity of $80,000 to cover the cash shortfall in January.

Since the cash safety margin each month is also $80,000, the total operating reserve or liquidity required is $100,000 ($80,000 for January and $20,000 for the other 11 months).

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Give short answers to two of the following questions: (a) "What we hope will prevent a direct attack [on West Berlin] is Soviet awareness that we mean to defend our position in West Berlin, and that American troops, who are not numerous there, are our hostage to that intent" (American president John F. Kennedy answering a press question in 1961). Explain the nature of this strategy. (b) On moving to Vienna in 1781, Mozart hoped for an imperial post but waited for the Emperor to call him, because "if one makes any move oneself, one receives less pay" (letter to his Father). Explain the nature of this strategy. (c) The U.S. administration says to the Japanese government: "If you don't open your auto parts market very soon, there is the risk that our Congress will pass some very protectionist legislation that will hurt your economy." Explain the nature and purpose of this strategic move.

Answers

(a) The nature of the strategy described by President Kennedy in 1961 is a deterrence strategy. The intention is to deter a direct attack on West Berlin by making it clear to the Soviet Union that any attack on the city would result in a strong defense by the United States.

The presence of American troops in West Berlin is seen as a hostage or leverage to demonstrate the commitment to defend the city, even if the number of troops is limited. The strategy aims to create a perception of resolve and a willingness to protect West Berlin, thereby dissuading the Soviet Union from launching an attack.

(b) The nature of the strategy mentioned by Mozart in his letter to his father is a passive or patient strategy. Mozart is waiting for the Emperor to initiate contact and offer him an imperial post, rather than actively pursuing it himself. He believes that if he makes a move or shows eagerness, he may receive less favorable terms or lower pay. By waiting for the Emperor's call, Mozart aims to negotiate from a position of strength and ensure better compensation for his services. This strategy demonstrates a calculated approach to maximize his potential benefits without appearing desperate or undervalued.

(c) The nature and purpose of the strategic move made by the U.S. administration in relation to the Japanese government is a threat or warning strategy. By stating that if Japan does not open its auto parts market, the U.S. Congress may pass protectionist legislation, the U.S. administration is issuing a warning about the potential consequences for Japan's economy. The purpose of this move is to pressure Japan to take action and open its market to prevent the enactment of protectionist measures that could harm its economy. It is a strategic maneuver aimed at influencing Japan's decision-making by highlighting the potential negative outcomes if they do not comply with the desired action.

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Question 34 According to Porter's five forces model, which of the following makes an industry attractive? O Many substitute products Many competitors O High power of suppliers O Low threat of new entrants High power of buyers 1 points

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An industry attractive when there is a low threat of new entrants and many substitute products available, as these factors can help maintain profitability and reduce competition among existing players.

Low threat of new entrants: When there are barriers to entry, such as high capital requirements, strong brand loyalty, or government regulations, it becomes difficult for new competitors to enter the market. This reduces the likelihood of intense competition and helps maintain profitability for existing players.

Many substitute products: When there are numerous alternatives available to consumers, it reduces the power of any single product or brand. This situation increases competition among existing players and may lead to price pressure, making the industry less attractive.

High power of suppliers: When suppliers have strong bargaining power, they can demand higher prices or impose other unfavorable terms. This can negatively impact the profitability of companies operating within the industry.

High power of buyers: When customers have significant bargaining power, they can demand lower prices, better quality, or additional services. This can squeeze profit margins for companies in the industry and make it less attractive.

Based on the given options, the factors that make an industry attractive are:

Low threat of new entrants

Many substitute products

These two factors reduce the intensity of competition and provide more stability and profitability for existing players.

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Draw (5 points) and solve the Cash Flow Diagram for Future Value "F". This is a 10 year Cash Flow, and interest rate is a compounded 7%, but I want the Future Value at Year 13. You CANNOT just use P/F or F/P, use the tool suited for the type of CFD item. a. $15000.00 is Invested Today for a piece of testing equipment (5 pts) b. $2000.00 is Earned as Annual Income from end of years 4-10 through use of this test equipment (10 pts) F c. $400.00 is the Annual Maintenance Cost of the testing equipment for all 10 years (10 pts) d. Salvage Value at the end of the 10th year is $1500.00 (5 pts) e. There is an Arithmetic Gradient Income from years 6-10 with a Base Annuity of $500.00 increasing (getting bigger) by $50.00 each year (15 pts) f. There is a mortgage cost from years 1-10 with a starting amount of $1500, decreasing (getting smaller) by $25 each year (years 2- 10). (15 pts)

Answers

To solve the cash flow diagram and find the future value (F) at Year 13, we will use the appropriate tools for each item in the cash flow diagram. Here's how it looks:

```

Year     Cash Inflows       Cash Outflows

--------------------------------------------

0        $15,000.00

1

2        -$1,475.00

3        -$1,450.00

4        -$1,425.00

5        -$1,400.00

6        $500.00

7        $550.00

8        $600.00

9        $650.00

10       $700.00

11

12

13                                            F

```

Explanation of each item:

a. $15,000.00 is Invested Today (Year 0):

At Year 0, $15,000.00 is invested in the testing equipment.

b. $2,000.00 is Earned as Annual Income (Years 4-10):

From Years 4 to 10, an annual income of $2,000.00 is earned from the use of the test equipment.

c. $400.00 is the Annual Maintenance Cost (Years 1-10):

Throughout Years 1 to 10, there is an annual maintenance cost of $400.00 for the testing equipment.

d. Salvage Value at the end of Year 10 is $1,500.00:

At the end of Year 10, there is a salvage value of $1,500.00 for the testing equipment.

e. Arithmetic Gradient Income (Years 6-10):

From Years 6 to 10, there is an arithmetic gradient income with a base annuity of $500.00, increasing by $50.00 each year.

f. Mortgage Cost (Years 1-10):

From Years 1 to 10, there is a mortgage cost starting at $1,500.00 and decreasing by $25.00 each year from Years 2 to 10.

To find the future value (F) at Year 13, we need to consider all the cash inflows and outflows. The future value will be the accumulated amount of all cash flows at Year 13.

To calculate the future value, we will apply the appropriate compounding and discounting factors based on the interest rate of 7% compounded annually.

Please note that to provide the precise future value, the exact amounts and timing of each cash flow need to be considered.

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Please circle on the True or Fault for the following questions: (2 points) 1. It is wrong if the people thinks that planning reduces the flexibility of organizational activities. T 2. An organization is considered as an open system that has continuousely interactions with its environment T P 3. The four contemporary functions of management are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. T F 4. Objectives which are developed based on traditional methods (developed by the top manageriare specific and clear. T F 5. A group of experts from different specializations and work together is call multi-functional team. T 6. A leader influences to a group or organizations in order to achieve the goals. 7 T 7. Individual difference are personal attributes that vary from one person to another. 8. Communication is a process of transmitting information from one person to another. T 9. Delegation is the process by which a manager assigns a portion of his/her total workload to others T T 10. Chain of command is the number of people who report to a particular manager II. Please circle on the most right answer to fulfill the blank or to answer the flowing questions (2 points) 11. is the process of getting activities completed efficiently and effectively with and through other people. A. Leading B. Management C. Supervising D. Controlling 12. An automobile manufacturer that increased the total number of cars produced at the same cost, but with many defects, would be A. Increased both effectiveness and efficiency B. Increased effectiveness C. Increased efficiency D. Focused on inputs 1. P F F F F The

Answers

I. The questions in the context of organization are 1. False , 2. True, 3. True, 4. False, 5. True, 6. True, 7. True, 8. True, 9. True and 10. False.

II. 11.  Management is the process of getting activities completed efficiently and effectively with and through other people. The correct answer is option B.

12.  An automobile manufacturer that increased the total number of cars produced at the same cost, but with many defects, would be  Increased efficiency. The correct answer is option C.

False: Planning, when done effectively, actually enhances the flexibility of organizational activities. It allows organizations to anticipate and prepare for potential challenges, adapt to changing circumstances, and make informed decisions in a more agile manner.True: Organizations are considered open systems as they interact and exchange resources, information, and feedback with their external environment. These interactions can include customers, suppliers, competitors, regulatory bodies, and other external stakeholders.True: The four contemporary functions of management are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. These functions are widely recognized as key components of the management process and are essential for achieving organizational goals.False: Objectives developed based on traditional methods may not always be specific and clear. Traditional methods may sometimes result in vague or generic objectives that lack clarity and measurability, making it difficult to effectively guide and assess performance.True: A group of experts from different specializations working together is referred to as a multi-functional team. The team members bring diverse skills and expertise to collectively address complex problems or projects.True: A leader influences a group or organization to achieve its goals. Leadership involves guiding, motivating, and inspiring others towards a common vision or objective.True: Individual differences are personal attributes that vary from one person to another. These differences can include personality traits, values, skills, knowledge, and experiences, which can influence how individuals behave and perform in various contexts.True: Communication is indeed a process of transmitting information from one person to another. It involves the exchange of messages, ideas, thoughts, or instructions through verbal, non-verbal, or written means.True: Delegation is the process by which a manager assigns a portion of their workload to others. It involves empowering and entrusting employees with tasks and responsibilities, while maintaining accountability for the overall outcome.False: Chain of command refers to the line of authority within an organization, specifying who reports to whom. It does not indicate the number of people reporting to a particular manager, but rather the hierarchy and flow of decision-making authority.

II. 11. Management: Management is the process of getting activities completed efficiently and effectively with and through other people. It encompasses planning, organizing, leading, and controlling to achieve organizational goals.

Thus, option B is the right answer.

12.  Increased efficiency: Increasing the total number of cars produced at the same cost, but with many defects, reflects an increase in efficiency. Efficiency refers to achieving a goal with minimal waste or resource utilization. In this case, the manufacturer produced more cars without incurring additional costs, although the issue of defects should also be addressed to improve effectiveness.

Hence, option C is the right one.

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(a) What is the probability that none of the employees in the sample work at the plant in Hawaii? (b) What is the probability that 1 of the employees in the sample works at the plant in Hawaii? (c) What is the probability that 2 or more of the employees in the sample work at the plant in Hawaii? (d) What is the probability that 9 of the employees in the sample work at the plant in Texas?

Answers

(a) The probability is 0.7 or 70%. (b) The probability is 0.355 or 35.5%. (c) The probability is approximately 0.045 or 4.5%. (d) The probability is approximately 0.0011 or 0.11%.  

(a)., the probability that 0 employees work at the plant in Hawaii is 0.7. From part (b), the probability that exactly 1 employee works at the plant in Hawaii is approximately 0.355. Therefore, the probability that 2 or more employees work at the plant in Hawaii is approximately 1 - 0.7 - 0.355 or approximately 0.045.(a) Since there are 100 employees and 30 of them work at the plant in Hawaii, the remaining 70 employees work at other plants. Thus, the probability that none of the employees in the sample work at the plant in Hawaii is 70/100 or 0.7.(b) To calculate the probability that exactly 1 of the employees in the sample works at the plant in Hawaii, we need to consider the number of ways to choose 1 employee to work at the plant in Hawaii and 4 employees to work at other plants. There are 30 ways to choose the employee to work at the plant in Hawaii and 70 ways to choose the 4 employees to work at other plants. Thus, the probability is (30 × 70)/C(100, 5) or approximately 0.355.(c) The probability that 2 or more of the employees in the sample work at the plant in Hawaii is equal to 1 minus the probability that 0 or 1 employee works at the plant in Hawaii. From part (a), the probability that 0 employees work at the plant in Hawaii is 0.7. From part (b), the probability that exactly 1 employee works at the plant in Hawaii is approximately 0.355. Therefore, the probability that 2 or more employees work at the plant in Hawaii is approximately 1 - 0.7 - 0.355 or approximately 0.045.(d) Since there are 100 employees and 60 of them work at the plant in Texas, the probability that 9 of the employees in the sample work at the plant in Texas is the number of ways to choose 9 employees to work at the plant in Texas and 1 employee to work at another plant divided by the number of ways to choose 10 employees from 100. There are C(60, 9) ways to choose 9 employees to work at the plant in Texas and C(40, 1) ways to choose 1 employee to work at another plant. Thus, the probability is (C(60, 9) × C(40, 1))/C(100, 10) or approximately 0.0011 or 0.11%.The answers are as follows: (a) The probability is 0.7 or 70%. (b) The probability is 0.355 or 35.5%. (c) The probability is approximately 0.045 or 4.5%. (d) The probability is approximately 0.0011 or 0.11%.

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A violin string vibrates at 441 Hz when unfingered. At what frequency will it vibrate if it is fingered one-third of the way down from the end? (That is, only two-thirds of the string vibrates as a standing wave.)So i understand how to get the answer and i got the right answer (441HZ) , so you DO NOT NEED TO FIND THE ANSWER. Alll i want is someone to explain why it is n=1 for both cases. because if your changing the length of the string isnt a different harmonic? but to get the right answer you assume n=1 for both cases? PLEASE SHOW WORK AND DON'T COPY FROM OTHER ALREADYANSWERED QUESTIONS BECAUSE YOU WILL GET DOWNVOTEDD random variable value 5 6 Absolute Frequency 10 Relative Frequency 7 8 15 (a) Find the Relative Frequency for each random variable value (6) What is the average of the random variable ? (c) What Is Question 38The critical element in a project's communication system is theProgress reportProject managerProject directiveCustomer a dog whistle emits a sound in the ultrasonic range, which people cannot hear but dogs can. what frequency range does a dog whistle likely have? group of answer choices above 45,000 hz 5-20 hz 20,000-45,000 hz 20-20,000 hz If two stars have the same value of V magnitude, what does that mean?A. They have the same brightnessB. They have differentbrightnessC. BothD. None of the above what is typically the largest source of money for a new business?a) The federal government b) Small-town banks c) Family and friends d) Venture capitalists At year-end 2000, S&P 500 was at 1320.28. By year-end 2001, it was at 1148.08. Based on these values, what was the return for S&P 500 during year 2001? Assume no additional dividends during the holding period.A.)15.00%B.)13.04%C.)5.04%D.)18.04% For Part 2 of your CPT, you will be finding and/or creating two (2) questions for each of the units that you completed mind maps for. You will then be creating detailed solutions for these questions. By the end of part 2 you will be handing in a total of four (4) questions and four (4) detailed/concise solutions . "Management must establish input goals, process goals and output goals with regard to the deployment of all the five M's". 5. Pamela owns a pet-sitting business. People hire her to take care of their pets when they go out of town. As part of her service, Pamela also brings in her client's mail and water their plants. Her business is booming, and she needs to make some critical decisions about its future. Ques. Help Pamela decide what to do next. Should she expand her business? Add employees? Take a partner? Make sure that you evaluate the advantages and disadvantages of each suggestion you offer and mention them in your answer. What were some pros about us intervention in Nicaragua? Question 5 of 25The circuit diagram below shows the locations of four switches. All fourswitches are initially closed. Which switch must be opened in order to createa complete (not short) circuit?OA. Switch 2OB. Switch 1OC. Switch 3D. Switch 4 Which calculation determines a firm's gross profit margin? O Total revenue divided by net income O Gross profit divided byrevenue O Gross profit divided by total sales ONet income divided by total sales 43 A privately held retail company needs to secure lowest-cost funding to build up inventory. Which short-term funding option should this company use first? Bank line of credit Trade credit Commercial paper Commercial bank loan