The two types of endoscopy procedures encode range 31231 through 31298 are diagnostic and surgical Is False.
What are the different types of endoscopic procedures?There are two distinct procedure codes for endoscopic sinus surgery: 31231 Nasal endoscopies, diagnostic, unilateral, or bilateral (separate procedure).31237 Nasal/sinus endoscopy, surgical; with biopsy, polypectomy, or debridement (separate procedure).Diagnostic Nasal Endoscopy - CPT 31231. Endoscopy is a medical procedure that allows a doctor to inspect and observe the inside of the body without performing major surgery. An endoscope is a long, usually flexible tube with a lens at one end and a video camera at the other.To learn more about endoscopy :
https://brainly.com/question/17052013
#SPJ10
Performing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength endurance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of what kind of periodization
Doing 4 weeks of stabilization training before moving on to strength resistance training for another 4 weeks would be an example of periodization in preparation for going into competition and transition.
What periodization?Periodization has as main objective to improve the performance and the result of the athlete. Through this systematic organization of activities, a training routine is created with different stimuli, which alternate according to the cycle and goals of each practitioner, whether amateur or professional.
With this information, we can conclude that the training periodization takes into account, mainly, the athlete's competitive calendar. All steps and cycles happen within this calendar. In the end, it is important that we achieve the objectives of each stage in time for the competitions, leaving the athlete in his best condition.
Learn more about resistance training in brainly.com/question/2414517
#SPJ1
What type of fixed prosthesis could the dental assistant recommend to the patient for the replacement of the gold crown on tooth #28?
The type of fixed prosthesis that could the dental assistant recommend to the patient for the replacement of the gold crown on tooth #28 would be a porcelain coronet with zirconia, whose benefits are high durability, resistance to bite, and decay.
What is Fixed Prosthesis?The fixed prosthesis may be described as a component of the dental prosthesis that agitates the substitute and repair of teeth by artificial alternative methods that cannot be withdrawn or extracted from the mouth.
Another benefit of the porcelain crown with zirconia is also associated with aesthetic aspects, as this approach ensures greater naiveness with the prospect of reaching the color of the patient's innate teeth.
Without the usefulness of metal, the porcelain crown with zirconia obtains more remarkable biological compatibility and undersized provocative threat.
Therefore, it is well described above.
To learn more about fixed prostheses, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/14317399
#SPJ1
A NutritionFacts label for a snack bar lists a total carbohydrate content of 16 g, total fat of 15 g, and total protein of 6 g. The total amount of energy it provides is approximately Group of answer choices 188 calories. 220 calories. 250 calories. 275 calories.
The total amount of energy it provides is approximately 220 calories.
How many calories does it contain?Carbohydrates provide 4 kcal/g to 17 kJ/g. 4 x 16 = 64 kcalProteins provide 4 kcal/g - 17 kJ/g. 4 x 6 = 24 kcalFats provide 9 kcal/g - 37 kJ/g. 9 x 15 = 135kcal64+24+135 = 223kcal
What is calorie?Calories are units of heat measurement. In nutrition, it is used to quantify the energy that a food offers to the organism and the amount of energy that the individual needs daily.
With this information, we can conclude that The total amount of energy it provides is approximately 220 calories.
Learn more about Calories in brainly.com/question/22374134
#SPJ1
Aminophylline 0.5 milligrams/kg/hr is prescribed for an 80 kg man; 500 milligrams in 500 ml infusion is prepared. At what rate should the infusion run (in ml/hr.)?
Here, the rate of infusion is 40mLs/hr.
What is Infusion?An infusion may be defined as a process of being extracted some compounds from original products.
To find the dose required = 0.5 (mg) x patient weight (kg)
= 0.5mg x 80 = 40mg
Available Aminophylline is 500mg in 500 mLs = 1mg in a mL
To find the actual rate of infusion = [tex]\frac{40 * 500 mL }{500}[/tex]
= [tex]\frac{40 mg * 1ml}{1 mg}[/tex] = 40mLs/hour.
Therefore, the rate of infusion is 40mLs/hr.
To learn more about Infusion, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/17056414
#SPJ1
The second and third trimesters of pregnancy occur entirely within the _____ period of prenatal development.
The second and third trimesters of pregnancy occur entirely within the fetal period of prenatal development.
What is the fetus?The fetus refers to the unborn offspring in mammals that grows during a given period of prenatal development.
In humans, the fetus is the body structure that generates form the embryonic state of development.
In conclusion, The second and third trimesters of pregnancy occur entirely within the fetal period of prenatal development.
Learn more about the fetus here:
https://brainly.com/question/1311741
#SPJ1
The vigorous CR training zone for a 32-year-old individual with a resting heart rate (RHR) of 55 bmp is _______.
Options:
A.133 to 172 bpm
B. 172 to 201 bpm
C.99 to 134 bpm
D. 157 to 184 bpm
Answer:
The vigorous CR training zone for a 32-year-old individual with a resting heart rate (RHR) of 55 bmp is 133 to 172 bpm
What is resting heart rate?Resting heart rate (RHR) is the average number of beats your heart makes per minute. Your RHR may be impacted if you have a diagnosed heart issue because of things like your medications and the nature of your condition.
The range of a normal resting heart rate (RHR) is 60 to 100 beats per minute (bpm).
If your RHR is regularly over 100 beats per minute, you have tachycardia, and you should consult a doctor, especially if you also experience additional symptoms like tightness in your chest, exhaustion, or shortness of breath.
For more information regarding heart rate, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/19102503
#SPJ1
Explain the current imbalance in the United States' health care system as regards primary vs. specialty care.
There seems to be a deficiency of doctors that provide primary health care compared to specialty care.
What is specialty care?The term specialty care refers to the kind o care that must be given by an expert that has been trained in a particular area of medicine. This is different from the primary care that can be given by just any physician.
In the United States, many bigger hospitals tend to push their doctors towards specialty training. Also, the specialty doctors tend to be paid more than the doctors that provide primary care.
As a result of what has been discussed here, there seems to be a deficiency of doctors that provide primary health care compared to specialty care.
Learn more about primary health care:https://brainly.com/question/19370359?
#SPJ12
Which level of trauma facility has minimal surgical support but can stabilize before transferring to a higher-level trauma facility
which of the following techniques should be avoided when massaging appendages presenting with signs of overuse such as varicose veins
"The technique which should be avoided among the answer choices is; Choice D; Deep effleurage proximal to distal, medial to lateral.
Which of the techniques in the task content should be avoided?It follows from the task content that while massaging appendages with signs of overuse, it is important to avoid effleurage distal to proximal, lateral and medial as such technique has negative impact on the appendages.
Remarks;
a. Deep effleurage proximal to distal, medial to lateral.
b. Petrissage, to mimic the contractions used in exercise.
c. ""Toward the heart"" where strokes move in the direction of the venous return.
d. Deep effleurage distal to proximal, lateral to medial.
Read more on massaging techniques;
https://brainly.com/question/24358869
#SPJ11
The epidemiologic and clinical descriptions of a disease are different. Group of answer choices True False
Answer:
True
The answer to "The epidemiologic and clinical descriptions of a diseases......" is TRUE
This statement is true because clinical description provides information about symptoms whereas epidemiologic description tell us about cause the effects of the disease.
What is the difference between epidemiologic and clinical descriptions ?The clinical description would tell us about the symptoms and signs of the disease while on the other hand, the epidemiologic description would figure out the cause and effect of the disease.
So we can conclude that this statement is true because clinical description provides information about symptoms whereas epidemiologic description tell us about cause the effects of the disease.
Learn more about disease here: https://brainly.com/question/25771019
#SPJ12
identify the positive and negative consequences of diagnostic labels. be sure to explain at least two positive consequences and two negative consequences.
The positive consequences are the ease of diagnostic characteristics and negative consequences are human subjectivity, reducing it to labels and diagnoses, it is closing the door to the elaboration process.
What is diagnostic labels?Medical symptoms demand and demand a diagnosis. The sooner the correct diagnosis is prescribed, the better for the effectiveness of the treatment. Mental disorders, no. And here it is necessary to differentiate between diseases of the brain – which can be treated with drugs or surgery – and “diseases” or mental disorders, which demand a different protocol and specific treatment.
With this information, we can conclude that the positive consequences are the ease of diagnostic characteristics and negative consequences are human subjectivity, reducing it to labels and diagnoses, it is closing the door to the elaboration process.
Learn more about diagnostic labels in brainly.com/question/14271878
#SPJ11
A client with chronic alcoholism has been found to have Wernicke encephalopathy. This irreversible complication is characterized by what
The characteristics of Wernicke encephalopathy are;
ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusionWhat is alcoholism?The term alcoholism refers to a situation in which a person takes in alcohol excessively to the point that it begins to result in certain health challenges.
There are three signs that usually characterize the irreversible development of Wernicke encephalopathy which are;
ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusionLearn more about alcoholism:https://brainly.com/question/4698220
#SPJ12
Wernicke's encephalopathy is a degenerative condition of the brain brought on by thiamine deficiency (vitamin B1). It can be brought on by excessive drinking, nutritional deficits, chronic vomiting, eating problems, or side effects from chemotherapy. The thalamus and hypothalamus of the brain are harmed by B1 deficiency.
The features of Wernicke encephalopathy are;
ophthalmoplegia, sataxia, sconfusion
What is meaning of alcoholism?When a person consumes alcohol inordinately to the point where it starts to cause specific health issues, that circumstance is referred to be alcoholism.
The three symptoms listed below typically indicate that Wernicke encephalopathy is developing irreversibly.
For more information regarding alcoholism, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/11624256
#SPJ12
The patient has a mass on his forehead; he says it is from a piece of sheet metal from a laceration to his forehead months ago. He has an X-ray showing a foreign body is in the mass. After obtaining consent, the metal fragment foreign body is removed from the subcutaneous tissue. What ICD-10-CM code(s) is/are reported
Reported ICD-10-CM codes are ICD 10 R22. 0 Localized swelling, mass or tumor of the head and ICD 10 · W45 - Penetration of a foreign body or object through the skin.
What is the ICD l10?ICD-10 LIST - The International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (also known as the International Classification of Diseases - ICD 10) is published by the World Health Organization (WHO) and aims to standardize the coding of diseases and other health-related problems .
With this information, we can conclude that reported ICD-10-CM codes are ICD 10 R22. 0 Localized swelling, mass or tumor of the head and ICD 10 · W45 - Penetration of a foreign body or object through the skin.
Learn more about ICD-10 in brainly.com/question/14819864
#SPJ11
The knobby region of a long bone at the end that is farthest from the trunk is the.
Answer:
distal epiphysis
Explanation:
A group of mothers and their babies were having a playdate at the park when a baby stopped breathing. One of the mothers performed CPR on the baby. Which action did the mother perform on the baby
The mother should cover the infant's mouth and nose tightly with her mouth.
Which action did the mother perform on the baby?She also cover just the nose and hold the mouth shut. Keep the chin lifted and head tilted. She has to give 2 breaths in which each breath should take about a second and make the chest rise.
So we can conclude that the mother should cover the infant's mouth and nose tightly with her mouth.
Learn more about CPR here: https://brainly.com/question/3725035
#SPJ12
Action plans are used to Select one: a. identify and achieve goals. b. evaluate choices and make decisions. c. establish your values and beliefs. d. access valid and reliable health information
Action plans are used to identify and achieve goals.
What is action plan and its purpose?An action plan is a document that have all the steps in order to achieve a specific goal. The purpose of an action plan is to clarify the present resources that are required to reach the goal.
So we can conclude that action plans are used to identify and achieve goals.
Learn more about goal here: https://brainly.com/question/1512442
#SPJ12
All hospitals receiving Medicare and Medicaid funds must ask clients whether they have a living will or a durable power of attorney. What legislative act makes this action mandatory
The enabling act that makes this mandatory is the Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Law.
What is the Medicare?The Medicare is a health insurance plan that reduces the out of pocket medical expenses for citizens who are over 65 years of age.
The enabling act that makes it mandatory that all hospitals receiving Medicare and Medicaid funds must ask clients whether they have a living will or a durable power of attorney is the Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Law.
Learn more about Medicare:https://brainly.com/question/14011571?
#SPJ11
Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are included in which category of drugs?.
Answer:
Like barbiturates, benzos are classified as sedative-hypnotic drugs and central nervous depressants. They also treat anxiety, panic disorders, sleep problems, and seizure disorders.
A normal-hearing infant should begin to babble and imitate speech by:
Group of answer choices
six to eight months.
1-2 months
3-4 months
4-5 months
Answer:
six to eight months.............Mrs. Allen has a rare condition for which two different brand name drugs are the only available treatment. She is concerned that since no generic prescription drug is available and these drugs are very high cost, she will not be able to find a Medicare Part D prescription drug plan that covers either one of them. What should you tell her?
She should use the more effective drug for the treatment of the disease in order to treat her condition.
What she do for the treatment of her disease?She should use the drug which is more effective in the treatment of her rare condition because that drug which is more effective, treat her disease very fast as compared to other drug which has low effectiveness.
So we can conclude that she should use the more effective drug for the treatment of the disease in order to treat her condition.
Learn more about drug here: https://brainly.com/question/26254731
#SPJ1
Answer:
Medicare prescription drug plans are required to cover drugs in each therapeutic category. She should be able to enroll in a Medicare prescription drug plan that covers the medications she needs.
Explanation:
To be labeled a good source of a particular nutrient, the food must contain ______% to ______% of the Daily Value for that nutrient.
For good source of a particular nutrient, the food must contain at least between 10% to 19% of the daily value for that nutrient.
What are the nutrients in food?Nutrients in food are those things that we derive from food that nourishes our body and helps our body to fight against different infections.
It is worthy of note that to be labeled a good source of a particular nutrient, the food must contain at least between 10% to 19% of the daily value for that nutrient.
Learn more about food nutrient:https://brainly.com/question/13380395?
#SPJ12
One way health problems can be addressed is through ________, which includes the use of computers, lasers, and other revolutionary techniques.
One way health problems can be addressed is through technology, which includes the use of computers, lasers, and other revolutionary techniques.
How has technology helped us solve health-related problems?Over the years, we've seen an increase in technological advancement which has been beneficial in solving problems related to medical and health sectors.
Some of these solution processes involves the use of computers in:
Storing, and retrieving information about patients' health.The use of AI and technological devices to carry out appropriate medical treatment for patients. etcLearn more about health technology here:
https://brainly.com/question/26006411
#SPJ12
Probably the most common disrupter of sleep is Group of answer choices sleep apnea. restless leg syndrome. circadian rhythm problems. a stressful lifestyle.
The most common disrupter of sleep among the given choices is sleep apnea. The correct option is A, Sleep apnea.
Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder characterized by pauses in breathing or shallow breaths during sleep.
Sleep apnea often leads to fragmented and disrupted sleep, as the pauses in breathing can cause brief awakenings or arousals from sleep.
There are three main types of sleep apnea:
Obstructive Sleep Apnea (OSA): This is the most common form of sleep apnea. It occurs when the muscles in the throat relax during sleep, causing the airway to narrow or close completely. Central Sleep Apnea (CSA): Central sleep apnea is less common and occurs when the brain fails to send proper signals to the muscles responsible for controlling breathing. Complex/Mixed Sleep Apnea: Complex or mixed sleep apnea is a combination of both obstructive and central sleep apnea.Restless leg syndrome (RLS) is another sleep disorder that can disrupt sleep, but it is less prevalent compared to sleep apnea.
Thus, the correct option is A, sleep apnea.
To know more about Sleep apnea, click here;
https://brainly.com/question/31580437
#SPJ6
Using so-called reasons (usually not true) to encourage you to try something. Examples: “It won’t hurt you.” “Your parents will never find out.” “You'll have a lot more fun.”
Peer Pressure is used in situations where egos and esteem rise off of the wrong impressions.
What is peer pressure?Active peer pressure occurs when your friends explicitly persuade you to do something.
Examples are offering and forcing you to drink then criticizing for refusing it. Forcing you to attend a party even your parents do not agree.
On the other hand, passive peer pressure happens within a person's want to fit in to his/her colleagues. It is further classified into social modelling and perception.
Example for social modeling is when you see all your friends are drinking then you just drink also because you do not want to be left out. Perception, on the other hand, is when you perceive that your peers are happy drinking then you drink as well because you believe that you also will be happy doing this.
Thus, this could be the answer
To learn more about peer pressure click here:
https://brainly.com/question/820743
#SPJ1
During an instruction session on breast self-examination, the nurse would instruct a client to perform the exam at which time
The nurse would instruct a client to perform the exam a week after the period ends.
Who is a nurse?It should be noted that a nurse simply means an individual who is in charge of looking after the health of an individual.
In this case, the nurse would instruct a client to perform the exam a week after the period ends.
Learn more about nurse on:
brainly.com/question/6685374
#SPJ12
A 50-year-old man presents to the office for evaluation of persistent perianal pain and pressure. He reports it started approximately 4 days ago, and has worsened. He reports he has avoided defecation because of the discomfort. Vital are as follows: T 101.2F, BP 140/80 mmHg, HR 88 bpm, RR 16/min, SpO2 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an area of fluctuance measuring approximately 4cm in diameter in the right perianal region with swelling of the perirectal tissue on the right. Digital rectal exam reveals significant tenderness in the area of the induration, but normal rectal tone or gross blood. What is the most likely diagnosi
The most likely diagnosis following the above listed symptoms is hemorrhoids.
What are hemorrhoids?Hemorrhoids is defined as a disease that occur due to inflammation of the vein at the rectum. The inflammation at the rectal region is due to:
Straining during bowel movements. Sitting for long periods of time on the toilet and Having chronic diarrhea or constipation.Therefore, the likely diagnosis is hemorrhoids.
Learn more about vital signs here:
https://brainly.com/question/970323
#SPJ12
In vaginal delivery done in the hospital setting, the doctor routinely orders an oxytocin to be given to the mother parenterally. The oxytocin is usually given after the placenta has been delivered and not before because:
The oxytocin is usually given after the placenta has been delivered and not before because it helps to stop postpartum bleeding.
What is postpartum hemorrhage?Postpartum hemorrhage it bleeding occurs immediately after the third stage of labor which is after the delivery of placenta.
The administration of oxytocin through the intravenously helps to provide a bolus dose few hours or immediately after delivery of placenta to help in the contraction of the blood vessels of the womb thereby arresting bleeding.
Learn more about hemorrhage here:
https://brainly.com/question/8677396
#SPJ12
During the second and third trimesters, a pregnant woman who begins pregnancy at a healthy weight should gain approximately ______ pound(s) per week.
In what ways can you reduce confusion and be sure physicians receive the proper medical records? Be specific. Have you ever had the opportunity or the challenge of developing a file or tracking system. Share your experiences and what worked and what did not.
No, i did not experienced as such challenge of developing a file or tracking system. The defensibility of a case depends on the medical record, which occasionally poses the toughest challenge. A medical record's main objective is to give a thorough and accurate account of the patient's medical history.
What is medical record?The medical record also serves a crucial secondary purpose, serving as the key piece of evidence in the successful defense of a claim for medical malpractice. A medical malpractice claim typically takes five years to be resolved.
This covers medical issues, diagnostics, your care and treatment, as well as the effects of those interventions. An accurate communication tool, a well-documented medical record reflects all clinically significant aspects of the patient's health.
For more information regarding medical record, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/8010757
#SPJ1
Learning to control aggressive behaviors is important for children's _____ health.
Group of answer choices
mental or social-emotional
cognitive
physical
epigenetic
Answer:
The best answer would be cognitive health (thinking)
Cognitive thinking is of or relating to the mental processes of perception, memory, judgment, and reasoning, as contrasted with emotional and volitional processes.
For children, they learn through experience per say, meaning that it is important to teach them to control their behaviors for the sake of their reasoning of how they deal with certain situations. Aggressive behavior must be controlled which is why it is important for children to learn to control it. Therefore, the best option would be, "Learning to control aggressive behaviors is important for children's cognitive health."
#SPJ2