The term that is used to describe people who have part-time jobs but want full-time work or whose jobs are below their experience, skill, and education level is underemployed.
Underemployed individuals are those who have part-time jobs and aspire to obtain full-time work but cannot because there aren't enough full-time jobs available. This type of person has the qualifications for a higher-level job but can only secure lower-level work. They may also have to settle for jobs in different fields than they had originally intended.Content loaded are not associated with individuals who have part-time jobs but want full-time work or whose jobs are below their experience, skill, and education level. Content loading is the process of publishing a large number of posts to a website in an attempt to manipulate search engine rankings. It is considered a violation of search engine optimization (SEO) guidelines.
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Q. Summarize the key findings of the work of Dobkin, Nicosia, and Weinberg (2014) regarding the
impact of supply-side interventions on the market for methamphetamines. [12 marks]
Dobkin, Nicosia, and Weinberg conducted a study in 2014 to explore the impact of supply-side interventions on the market for methamphetamines. They found several key findings that helped shed light on this important issue.
One of the key findings of the study was that supply-side interventions, such as increased law enforcement or efforts to restrict the availability of methamphetamine precursors, had a limited impact on the overall market for methamphetamines. While these interventions did succeed in driving up the cost of the drug, they did not significantly decrease the overall supply or demand for methamphetamines.Another key finding of the study was that supply-side interventions tended to have a more significant impact on smaller, local markets for methamphetamines than on larger, regional or national markets. This suggests that while local interventions may be effective in reducing drug use and drug-related crime in certain areas, they may not be effective at reducing overall drug use and drug-related crime across a larger area.The authors of the study also found that the use of supply-side interventions could lead to unintended consequences, such as the emergence of more potent or dangerous forms of methamphetamine that could be even more harmful to users than the previous forms.Overall, the study suggests that while supply-side interventions may be useful in certain situations, they should not be relied on as the sole means of reducing drug use and drug-related crime. Instead, a comprehensive approach that includes both supply- and demand-side interventions is likely to be more effective in addressing this complex problem.
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A $25,000, 91-day Province of Newfoundland Treasury bill was originally purchased at a price that would yield the investor a 5.438% rate of return if the T-bill is held until maturity. Thirty-four days later, the investor sold the T-bill through his broker for $24,875.
a. What price did the original investor pay for the T-bill? (Do not round the intermediate calculations. Round your answer to the nearest cent.) Price $
b. What rate of return did the first investor realize during his holding period? (Do not round the intermediate calculations. Round your answer to three decimal places.) Rate of return %
c. If the broker sells the t-bill to a second investor for $24,875, what rate of return will the second investor realize if he or she holds the t-bill until maturity? (Do not round the intermediate calculations. Round your answer to three decimal places.) Rate of return %
a. The original investor paid approximately $24,637.10 for the T-bill.
b. The first investor realized a rate of return of approximately 10.37%.
c. The second investor will realize a rate of return of approximately 2.013% if they hold the T-bill until maturity.
How to calculate Treasury bill returns?To solve this problem, we'll use the formula for calculating the price of a Treasury bill:
Price = Face Value / (1 + (Discount Rate × Time/365))
a. What price did the original investor pay for the T-bill?
Let's denote the price the original investor paid as P.
Price = P
Face Value = $25,000
Discount Rate = 5.438% = 0.05438
Time = 91 days
Plugging in the values into the formula, we have:
P = $25,000 / (1 + (0.05438 × 91/365))
P = $25,000 / (1 + 0.0135295)
P = $25,000 / 1.0135295
P ≈ $24,637.10
Therefore, the original investor paid approximately $24,637.10 for the T-bill.
b. What rate of return did the first investor realize during his holding period?
Let's denote the rate of return as R.
Price (sold) = $24,875
Price (purchased) = $24,637.10
R = ((Price (sold) - Price (purchased)) / Price (purchased)) × (365/Time)
R = (($24,875 - $24,637.10) / $24,637.10) × (365/34)
R ≈ (237.90 / $24,637.10) × 10.7353
R ≈ 0.00965 × 10.7353
R ≈ 0.1037
R ≈ 10.37%
Therefore, the first investor realized a rate of return of approximately 10.37% during their holding period.
c. If the broker sells the T-bill to a second investor for $24,875, what rate of return will the second investor realize if they hold the T-bill until maturity?
Price (sold to second investor) = $24,875
Face Value = $25,000
Let's denote the rate of return for the second investor as R2.
R2 = ((Face Value - Price (sold to second investor)) / Price (sold to second investor)) × (365/Time)
R2 = (($25,000 - $24,875) / $24,875) × (365/91)
R2 ≈ (125 / $24,875) × 4.01099
R2 ≈ 0.00502 × 4.01099
R2 ≈ 0.02013
R2 ≈ 2.013%
Therefore, the second investor will realize a rate of return of approximately 2.013% if they hold the T-bill until maturity.
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All taxpayers have an equal probability of having their tax returns audited.
false
true
All taxpayers have an equal probability of having their tax-returns audited is False statement.
The statement that all taxpayers have an equal probability of having their tax returns audited is false. The probability of being audited by tax authorities varies depending on several factors, including the taxpayer's income level, deductions claimed, type of business, occupation, and potential red flags that may trigger scrutiny.
Tax authorities, such as the Internal Revenue Service (IRS) in the United States, employ risk-based approaches to select tax returns for audit. They use various criteria and algorithms to identify potential non-compliance or areas of concern in tax returns. High-income individuals, businesses with complex transactions, and taxpayers who engage in suspicious or high-risk activities are more likely to be subject to audits.
Furthermore, tax authorities also conduct random audits as a means of maintaining overall tax compliance and deterring fraudulent activities. However, even in random audits, not all taxpayers have an equal probability of being selected. The sample size for random audits is relatively small compared to the total number of taxpayers, so the probability of any individual taxpayer being selected randomly is low.
The probability of having tax returns audited is not equal for all taxpayers. Various factors, such as income level, deductions claimed, and risk indicators, influence the selection process for tax audits. Higher-income individuals and businesses with complex transactions are generally more likely to face scrutiny from tax authorities. Therefore, the statement that all taxpayers have an equal probability of being audited is false.
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As a result of Ngasa’s failure to attend an appointment schedule on 15.03.2004 with his creditors whose claims remained
unpaid for a long time, a petition for bankruptcy was filed by the same creditors on 30.03.2004. Immediately on 31.03.2004, the
court issued a receiving order. Prior to that, Ngasa had escaped from the rear gate of his house. On 15.02 2004, there was a
serious day and night hunting, kept on by his furious creditos. As if that was not enough, Ngasa had frankly confirmed to
Ngamaholo on 03.01.2004, that he could not, by all means pay the claims. Being stubborn as he is, Ngasa had on 20.12.2003
assigned a substantial portion to his trustee by the name of Ngwanasai.
Given below is Ngasa’s Balance sheet as at the date of receiving order;
Non-current assets Book value ERV
Premises 2000,000 280,000
Office equipments 300,000 150,000
Fixture and Fittings 100,000 75,000
Current Assets
Stock 400,000 405,000
Cash and Bank 200,000
3000,000
Liabilities and Equity
Capital 2,000,000
Add: Profit 1,000,000
3,000,000
Less: Drawings 2500,000 500,000
General creditors 1,000,000
Workmen compensation 200,000
Bridging finance (payable to
Ngasa’s nephew) 180,000
24% Exim Bank loan (secured on 1,000,000
Premises)
Exim Bank loan interest 120,000
3,000,000
The following additional information is provided;
i. Ngasa who had been trading as ‘Ngasa Nabanaakwe’ discounted a bill for Tshs. 1,000,000/=. This bill is proved
to have a slim chance of being honored on due date
ii. A further workmen compensation was anticipated at shs 450,000
iii. Included in the figure of general creditors is an amount of shs 500,000/= lent by Ngasamo on 02.01.2004 with no
transaction and communication ever since.
iv. Ngasa has personally guaranteed his friend Holela for a Bank loan pf shs 250,000/=of which shs 200,000
remained un paid
v. Ngasa only personal assets consists of
a. Wearing apparel shs 342,500
b. Furniture and fittings shs 125,000
vi. On the other hand personal debts of Mr. Ngasa comprises of the following;
a. School fees shs 100,000
b. Medical bills 50,000
c. Alimony 55,500,000
d. Cocaine supplies 115,000
e. Destruction fee shs 175,000/= The fee were to be paid in consideration of destroying documents Ngasa had
signed at the central police traffic office acknowledging his questionable involvement in a car accident, which
was caused by his reckless driving.
f. Taxes Tshs 255,000/=, these were assessed on 25.02.2003 and were in respect of the year of income 2002.
Required:
a) When is the bankruptcy deemed to have commenced against Mr. Ngasa?
b) Why is this date important
c) Compute the amount of deferred creditors
d) Prepare Mr. Ngasa’s SOA and DA.
The bankruptcy of Mr. Ngasa is deemed to have commenced on March 31, 2004. The date is important because it's when Ngasa's bankruptcy was legally recognized. Computation of deferred creditors given in the explanation part.
a. The bankruptcy of Mr. Ngasa is deemed to have commenced on March 31, 2004, when the court issued a receiving order.
b. The date is important because it's when Ngasa's bankruptcy was legally recognized.
c. Compute the amount of deferred creditors. The amount of deferred creditors is the sum of the following:
General creditors: 1,000,000
Workmen compensation: 200,000
Bridging finance: 180,000 Exim Bank loan: 1,000,000
Exam Bank loan interest: 120,000
Ngasamo's loan: 500,000 Total: 3,000,000d)
Prepare Mr. Ngasa’s SOA and DA.Statement of Affairs (SOA) Assets Book value ERV Non-current assets Premises 2000,000 280,000
Office equipments 300,000 150,000
Fixture and Fittings 100,000 75,000
Total non-current assets 2,400,000 505,000 Current Assets Stock 400,000 405,000
Cash and Bank 200,000 Total current assets 600,000 405,000
Total Assets 3,000,000 910,000
Liabilities and Equity Capital 2,000,000
Add: Profit 1,000,000 Less: Drawings 2500,000 500,000
General creditors 1,000,000 Workmen compensation 200,000 Bridging finance 180,000
Exam Bank loan 1,000,000 Exam Bank loan interest 120,000
Total Liabilities 2,000,000
Deficiency (1,090,000) Deficiency = Total assets - total liabilities = Tshs. 910,000 – 2,000,000 = Tshs. (1,090,000)
Statement of Affairs (SOA) Assets Book value Estimated realizable value Non-current assets Premises 2,000,000 280,000
Office equipments 300,000 150,000 Fixture and Fittings 100,000 75,000 Total non-current assets 2,400,000 505,000
Current Assets Stock 400,000 405,000 Cash and Bank 200,000 Total current assets 600,000 405,000
Total Assets 3,000,000 910,000
Liabilities General creditors 1,000,000 Workmen compensation 200,000 Bridging finance 180,000
Exim Bank loan 1,000,000 Exim Bank loan interest 120,000
Total Liabilities 2,500,000 Excess of Liabilities over assets (590,000)
The excess of liabilities over assets is Tshs. 590,000 and is known as the Deficiency.
Accounting treatments of Ngasa's assets: Non-current assets should be realized and settled to pay the creditors.
The estimated realizable value of the non-current assets is Tshs. 505,000 which is less than the book value of Tshs. 2,400,000. Thus, the total amount of assets available for the settlement of the creditors' claims is Tshs. 910,000, which is less than the total liabilities of Tshs. 2,500,000.
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1. The two most widely used screening tools are
a.
testing and application forms
b.
reference checks and interviews
c.
application forms and resumes
d.
physical exams and testing
2. The initial screening interview is carried out primarily
a.
to go over the application form
b.
to aid sales managers in making a decision
c.
to eliminate undesirable recruits
d.
to gain an in depth understanding of the applicant
3. All of the following are characteristics of selling except
a.
most sales positions require some travel, sometimes overnight
b.
most sales jobs do not involve close supervision
c.
most people who enter sales have considerable work experience
d.
high employee turnover is typically found in sales jobs
1. Application forms and resumes, 2. The initial screening interview is carried out primarily to eliminate undesirable recruits, 3. Most people who enter sales have considerable work experience.
Explanation:
1. The two most widely used screening tools are Application forms and resumes. Application forms help the organization to gather the required information about the candidate, and resumes are helpful for the recruiter to know about the candidate's education, work experience, skills, etc.
2. The initial screening interview is carried out primarily to eliminate undesirable recruits. It is also an opportunity for the candidate to learn more about the organization, the job position, and the work environment. The interviewer tries to determine whether the candidate meets the organization's requirements or not.
3. All of the following are characteristics of selling except most people who enter sales have considerable work experience. In sales, people have to work hard to achieve their goals. Selling usually requires a lot of effort, good communication skills, and a good understanding of the product or service being sold. The sales job often involves a lot of travel and sometimes, requires overnight travel.
Sales jobs often require the person to work independently, with minimal supervision. However, sales jobs are usually associated with high employee turnover because it is a competitive field.
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You would like to use the fixed-time period inventory model to compute the desired order quantity for a company. You know that vendor lead time is 10 days and the number of days between revis 11. Which of the following is the standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time period if the standard deviation of daily demand is 10?
To compute the standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time period in the fixed-time period inventory model, given a daily demand standard deviation of 10, we need to consider the number of days between reviews and the vendor lead time.
In the fixed-time period inventory model, the desired order quantity is determined based on the review period and lead time. The review period is the number of days between reviews, which in this case is 11 days. The vendor lead time is the time it takes for the order to be delivered, which is 10 days.
To calculate the standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time period, we need to consider the variability of daily demand and the number of days in the review and lead time combined. Since the standard deviation of daily demand is given as 10, we can use the formula:
Standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time period = Standard deviation of daily demand * Square root of the number of days in the review and lead time period
In this case, the number of days in the review and lead time period is 11 (review period) + 10 (lead time) = 21 days.
Therefore, the standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time period would be:
Standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time period = 10 * √21 ≈ 46.67
Thus, the standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time period, given a daily demand standard deviation of 10, is approximately 46.67.
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You would like to use the fixed-time period inventory model to compute the desired order quantity for a company. You know that vendor lead time is 10 days and the number of days between reviews is 11. Which of the following is the standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time period if the standard deviation of daily demand is 10?
Specify THREE (3) ways in which the Equity Theory can be used to
explain dissatisfaction by members of the project team.
The Equity Theory can be used to explain dissatisfaction among project team members in three ways: perceived inequity in rewards, perceived inequity in efforts, and comparison to others.
Firstly, dissatisfaction can arise when team members perceive inequity in rewards. If an individual believes that their contributions and efforts are not adequately rewarded compared to others on the team, they may feel unfairly treated and become dissatisfied. Secondly, dissatisfaction can occur when team members perceive inequity in efforts. If an individual perceives that they are putting in more effort and work compared to their peers, but the rewards or recognition received are not proportional to their contribution, they may experience a sense of unfairness and dissatisfaction. Lastly, dissatisfaction can stem from the comparison to others. When team members compare their own contributions and rewards to those of their colleagues, they may develop a sense of inequity if they believe they are receiving less than what they deserve relative to their peers, leading to dissatisfaction.
In summary, the Equity Theory explains dissatisfaction among project team members through perceived inequity in rewards, perceived inequity in efforts, and comparison to others. These factors can contribute to a sense of unfairness and dissatisfaction if team members feel they are not being treated equitably in terms of rewards and effort in comparison to their peers.
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The Post Office's new organizational structure has four departments: The Government department, the Large Organizations department, the Medium and Small Size Organizations department, and the Households and Individuals department. Accordingly which of the following is correct regarding the Post Office's new base of departmentalization? It is a Matrix departmentalization. B) It is Product-Team Departmentalization. It is Divisional-Customer departmentalization. D) It is Hierarchical Functional departmentalization.
The Post Office's new organizational structure has four departments: D) It is Hierarchical Functional departmentalization.
The Government department, the Large Organizations department, the Medium and Small Size Organizations department, and the Households and Individuals department. The departmentalization used by the Post Office is Hierarchical Functional departmentalization.
Functional departmentalization is the most commonly used type of departmentalization in which a business or organization is structured according to specific activities such as finance, marketing, human resources, and production. Departments are organized into a hierarchy based on the level of importance of the function they perform.
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DJI case study
Q1. What are the factors that need to be considered to develop
the first generation of new products in a start-up company?
Q2. What caused Frank to shift from helicopter to multi-rotor?
When developing the first generation of new products in a start-up company, several factors need to be considered, including market demand, technological feasibility, competitive landscape, target audience, product differentiation, and resource availability. Additionally, the shift from helicopters to multi-rotors at DJI was primarily driven by market trends, technological advancements, and the potential for improved user experience and accessibility.
Developing the first generation of new products in a start-up company requires careful consideration of various factors. Market demand analysis is crucial to understand the needs and preferences of potential customers, ensuring that the product aligns with market trends and has a viable customer base. Technological feasibility assessment helps determine whether the product concept can be effectively realized within the company's technical capabilities and resources.
Understanding the competitive landscape is essential to differentiate the product from existing offerings and identify unique selling points. Identifying the target audience and their specific requirements allows for tailored product development and effective marketing strategies. Resource availability, including financial, human, and technical resources, plays a vital role in determining the feasibility and timeline of product development.
In the case of DJI, the shift from helicopters to multi-rotors was influenced by several factors. Market trends indicated a growing interest in unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) that were more accessible and user-friendly. Technological advancements in multi-rotor systems allowed for improved stability, maneuverability, and ease of use compared to traditional helicopters. This shift presented an opportunity for DJI to tap into a larger consumer market and provide innovative solutions for aerial photography and videography. By embracing the multi-rotor technology, DJI could offer a more affordable and user-friendly alternative to traditional helicopters, opening up new possibilities for aerial photography enthusiasts, professionals, and industries such as filmmaking and agriculture.
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The price of a European call option on a stock with a strike price of $50 is $6. The stock price is $52, the continuously compounded risk-free rate (all maturities) is 6% and the time to maturity is one year. A dividend of $1 is expected in six months. What is the price of a one-year European put option on the stock with a strike price of $507 ( (2 points) Answers 1-1
The price of a one-year European put option on the stock with a strike price of $50 is unknown.
To determine the price of a one-year European put option, we can use the put-call parity formula. According to put-call parity, the price of a put option (P) plus the present value of the exercise price (Xe^(-rt)) should equal the price of a call option (C) plus the current stock price (S) minus the present value of dividends (De^(-rt)). Mathematically, it can be expressed as:
P + Xe^(-rt) = C + S - De^(-rt)
Given information:
Call option price (C) = $6
Strike price (X) = $50
Stock price (S) = $52
Risk-free rate (r) = 6% per year (0.06)
Time to maturity (t) = 1 year
Dividend (D) = $1
Dividend payment occurs in 6 months (0.5 years)
Using the put-call parity formula, we can solve for the price of the put option (P):
P + 50e^(-(0.06)(1)) = 6 + 52 - 1e^(-(0.06)(0.5))
P + 50e^(-0.06) = 57 - 0.9802
P + 50 * 0.94176 = 56.0198
P + 47.088 = 56.0198
P = 56.0198 - 47.088
P = 8.9318
Therefore, the price of a one-year European put option with a strike price of $50 is approximately $8.93.
Based on the given information and using the put-call parity formula, the price of a one-year European put option on the stock with a strike price of $50 is calculated to be $8.93.
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In regards to supply and demand, please provide me with an
example of your own (not from my notes) that demonstrates the
relationship of complements and substitutes
An example that illustrates the relationship between complements and substitutes is the market for smartphones and mobile applications. Smartphones and mobile applications are complements, as they are used together to enhance the user experience.
An increase in the demand for smartphones leads to an increase in the demand for mobile applications. On the other hand, smartphones and traditional landline telephones are substitutes, as they serve similar communication purposes. An increase in the demand for smartphones may lead to a decrease in the demand for landline telephones.
In the market for smartphones and mobile applications, the two goods are complements. Smartphones provide a platform for users to access and use mobile applications. As the demand for smartphones increases, more people are buying and using smartphones, which in turn drives up the demand for mobile applications. This is because the value and utility of smartphones are enhanced when users have access to a wide range of applications, such as social media, productivity tools, entertainment, and more.
In contrast, smartphones and traditional landline telephones are substitutes. Both devices serve the purpose of communication, and consumers can choose to use either one. When the demand for smartphones increases, some consumers may opt to use smartphones as a substitute for landline telephones. They can make calls, send messages, and perform other communication functions using their smartphones, reducing the need for a landline telephone.
This example demonstrates how the demand for one good can affect the demand for complements or substitutes in the market. The relationship between complements and substitutes is important for understanding consumer behavior, pricing strategies, and market dynamics.
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Dr. W. Edwards Deming recommends eliminating numerical goals/quotas for the workforce.
a. True
b. False
The CEO and President of which airline is cited for (and known for) having focused on moments of truth to create a distinctive and competitive position for the airline in terms of service quality?
a. British Airways
b. Lufthansa
c. Thai Airways
d. Scandinavian Airlines
e. Singapore Airlines
The statement "Dr. W. Edwards Deming recommends eliminating numerical goals/quotas for the workforce" is True. The CEO and President of Singapore airline is cited for (and known for) having focused on moments of truth to create a distinctive and competitive position for the airline in terms of service quality. So option e is the correct answer.
Dr. W. Edwards Deming indeed recommended eliminating numerical goals/quotas for the workforce. He believed that such goals could lead to short-term thinking, individual competition, and a focus on meeting targets rather than improving overall quality and productivity.
Moments of Truth are the multiple interactions a customer has with a company's products or services. Every interaction represents a moment of reality or a chance to create a positive, engaging, and unforgettable experience.
Singapore Airlines, headquartered in Singapore, is a leading international carrier with a strong reputation for customer service, convenience, and comfort.
Therefore the first statement is True and for the second question option e. Singapore Airlines is the correct answer.
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Assuming you hold two bonds at par ($100) One bond has a duration of 1, the other of S. If verest rates rally 100 bps, how much more does the 5-year appreciate relative to the 1-year duration bond?
The 5-year bond will appreciate more than the 1-year bond by 4.04%. Duration is a measure of how much the price of a bond changes when the yield changes. The duration of a bond is determined by a variety of factors, including the bond's coupon rate, remaining time until maturity, and yield to maturity.
The formula for calculating duration is as follows:Duration = (PV of bond's cash flow x time of cash flow) / Bond priceLet's say you have two bonds with a face value of $100, one with a duration of 1 and the other with a duration of S (unknown value). If interest rates rise by 100 basis points (1%), how much more will the bond with a 5-year duration appreciate relative to the bond with a 1-year duration
We know the formula for duration and we have all the variables except S, so we can use algebra to solve for S:
Duration1 = (PV1 x time1) / Price1DurationS = (PVs x times) / PricesDividing the two equations gives:S = DurationS/ Duration1 = Prices/ Price1 = 100/100 = 1S = DurationS = 1 x 5 = 5Now that we have the value of S, we can calculate the % change in price for the bond with a 5-year duration:% Change in bond price = - 5 x 0.01= -0.05 or -5%
So the bond with a 5-year duration will depreciate by 5% when interest rates rise by 1%. The bond with a 1-year duration will depreciate by only 1%.Therefore, the bond with a 5-year duration will appreciate more than the bond with a 1-year duration by 4% (5% - 1%).Answer: The 5-year bond will appreciate more than the 1-year bond by 4.04%.
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Your mother gives you 600,000 Baht as a gift for your graduation. You have a job that pays you 25,000 Baht per month. You plan to buy a new house, which costs 2,000,000 Baht. However, you don’t have enough money, so you use 100,000 Baht (from your mom) as a down payment for the house and borrow the rest from your friend. Your friend gives you a 6% interest rate loan and lets you choose how you want to pay back the loan (annually, semi-annually, quarterly, or monthly) within 20 years. Calculate how much you have to pay annually, semi-annually, quarterly and monthly? After calculating, you decide to pay your friend back in monthly instalments.
Moreover, you want to save money for your future as well. As a result, you deposit the money that your mother gave (less the down payment) and each month, what is left from your salary after paying back the loan and your expense into the bank. The bank gives you a 5% annual interest rate. Assume that your expense is 10,000 Baht per month. How much can you save after 20 years?
a.) Annual Payment 147,663.73, Semi-Annual Payment 74,926.61, Quarterly Payment 37,908.97, Monthly Payment 9,019.58.
b.) The final savings would depend on how often the loan is paid. If the loan is paid monthly, the final savings after 20 years would be 3,731,195.77 Baht.
The cost of the new house is 2,000,000 Baht. With a down payment of 100,000 Baht (from the gift), the remaining balance of the loan is 1,900,000 Baht. The interest rate of the loan is 6% and the loan term is 20 years. The loan can be paid annually, semi-annually, quarterly, or monthly.
We can use the formula to calculate the loan payment per period;PV = Payment [((1 + r)n) - 1]/[r(1 + r)n]where PV = present value, r = interest rate per period, n = total number of periods and Payment = amount paid per period.
Since the loan can be paid annually, semi-annually, quarterly or monthly, we have:
Annual Payment:PV = Payment [((1 + 0.06)20) - 1]/[0.06(1 + 0.06)20]Payment = 147,663.73
BahtSemi-Annual Payment:PV = Payment [((1 + 0.03)40) - 1]/[0.03(1 + 0.03)40]Payment = 74,926.61
BahtQuarterly Payment:PV = Payment [((1 + 0.015)80) - 1]/[0.015(1 + 0.015)80]Payment = 37,908.97
BahtMonthly Payment:PV = Payment [((1 + 0.005)240) - 1]/[0.005(1 + 0.005)240]Payment = 9,019.58
BahtFor the savings part, we can use the formula:FV = PV (1 + r)nwhere FV = future value, PV = present value, r = interest rate per period, n = total number of periodsThe present value of the savings is the gift amount (less the down payment) = 500,000 Baht. The interest rate is 5% per year.
The future value of the savings after 20 years would be:
FV = 500,000(1 + 0.05)20= 1,326,649.57
BahtTherefore, the total savings after 20 years would be the future value of the savings plus the sum of all the payments made on the loan for 20 years:
Annual Payment:1,326,649.57 + (20 × 147,663.73) = 4,518,328.53
BahtSemi-Annual Payment:1,326,649.57 + (40 × 74,926.61) = 4,459,779.77
BahtQuarterly Payment:1,326,649.57 + (80 × 37,908.97) = 4,366,031.17
BahtMonthly Payment:1,326,649.57 + (240 × 9,019.58) = 3,731,195.77
BahtTherefore, the final savings would depend on how often the loan is paid. If the loan is paid monthly, the final savings after 20 years would be 3,731,195.77 Baht.
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Please name AND briefly describe two most crucial building blocks constituting the heart of any business model, Give an example for both,
Most crucial building blocks constituting the heart of any business model: Value Proposition and Revenue Model.
The two most crucial building blocks constituting the heart of any business model are the Value Proposition and the Revenue Model.
Value Proposition: This refers to the unique value and benefits that a company's products or services offer to its customers. It answers the question of why customers should choose the company's offerings over those of its competitors.
The value proposition defines the problem or need that the company's products or services solve, and how they provide a superior solution or create value for customers. It is essential for a company to clearly articulate its value proposition to differentiate itself in the market and attract customers.
Example: Apple's value proposition for its iPhone is the combination of sleek design, user-friendly interface, advanced features, and integration with the Apple ecosystem. This unique value proposition has made the iPhone a sought-after product in the smartphone market.
Revenue Model: This refers to the strategy and approach a company uses to generate revenue and monetize its value proposition. It outlines the pricing structure, revenue streams, and how the company captures value from its customers. A well-defined revenue model is crucial for ensuring the financial sustainability and profitability of a business.
Example: Amazon's revenue model is based on multiple streams, including online retail sales, Amazon Prime subscription fees, advertising, and cloud services (Amazon Web Services). By diversifying its revenue streams, Amazon has built a robust and successful business model that has driven its growth and profitability.
These two building blocks, the value proposition and the revenue model, are intertwined and form the foundation of a business model. A strong value proposition attracts customers, while a well-designed revenue model ensures the company can capture value and generate sustainable revenue from its offerings.
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Which of the following statements are NOT TRUE concerning the behaviours of superior negotiators? Select one or more: During face-to-face bargaining, superior negotiators asked fewer but focused questions that forwarded their agenda During face-to-face bargaining, superior negotiators avoided defend-attack cycles During face-to-face bargaining, superior negotiators made more immediate counterproposals During prenegotiation planning, superior negotiators formed their plans into strict sequential order
Based on the given statements, the statement that is NOT TRUE concerning the behaviors of superior negotiators is:
During prenegotiation planning, superior negotiators formed their plans into strict sequential order.
Superior negotiators typically exhibit certain behaviors and strategies that contribute to their effectiveness. Let's analyze each statement:
During face-to-face bargaining, superior negotiators asked fewer but focused questions that forwarded their agenda: This statement is true. Skilled negotiators often ask strategic questions that are focused and help them advance their agenda during negotiations.
During face-to-face bargaining, superior negotiators avoided defend-attack cycles: This statement is true. Effective negotiators tend to avoid unproductive cycles of defense and attack. Instead, they focus on problem-solving and collaboration to find mutually beneficial solutions.
During face-to-face bargaining, superior negotiators made more immediate counterproposals: This statement is true. Skilled negotiators are proactive in responding to proposals by offering counterproposals promptly. This helps maintain momentum in the negotiation process.
During prenegotiation planning, superior negotiators formed their plans into strict sequential order: This statement is NOT TRUE. Superior negotiators often develop flexible and adaptable plans during prenegotiation. They anticipate various scenarios and consider multiple options rather than strictly adhering to a sequential order.
Among the given statements, the one that is NOT TRUE concerning the behaviors of superior negotiators is that they form their prenegotiation plans into strict sequential order. Effective negotiators recognize the need for flexibility and adaptability in their plans to navigate the complexities of negotiations successfully.
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Puritan Apparels is a clothing retailer. Unit costs associated with one of its products, Product DCF 130, are as follows: Direct materials $180 Direct manufacturing labor 70 Variable manufacturing overhead 45 Fixed manufacturing overhead 33 Sales commissions (2% of sales) 10 Administrative salaries 26 Total $384 What are the indirect nonmanufacturing variable costs per unit associated with Product DCF130? A. S10 B. $338 C. $250 D. $38
Indirect nonmanufacturing variable costs per unit associated with Product DCF130 are $10. The correct option is A.
What are indirect nonmanufacturing variable costs?
These are the costs that aren't directly related to the production of goods, but they're variable expenses that are tied to the level of production. These costs include sales commission and advertising expenses. Indirect nonmanufacturing variable costs are different from direct costs.
Direct costs are production costs, and they include the cost of raw materials, labor costs, and other costs that are directly tied to production.
Unit cost calculation of Product DCF 130
Direct materials = $180
Direct manufacturing labor = $70
Variable manufacturing overhead = $45
Fixed manufacturing overhead = $33
Total manufacturing costs = $180 + $70 + $45 + $33 = $328
Sales commission = $10
Administrative salaries = $26
Total manufacturing costs + nonmanufacturing costs = $328 + $10 + $26 = $364
Indirect nonmanufacturing variable costs per unit of Product DCF 130 = Total indirect nonmanufacturing variable costs / Units of Product DCF 130= ($10 + $26) / 1= $36 / 1= $10
Hence, option A is correct. Indirect nonmanufacturing variable costs per unit associated with Product DCF130 are $10.
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Production Budget Harbour Inc. projected sales of 252,000 personal journals for 20Y6. The estimated January 1, 20Y6, inventory is 13,700 units, and the desired December 31, 2016, inventory is 19,700 units. What is the budgeted production (in units) for 2016? units
Budgeted production = Total Sales + Desired ending inventory - Beginning inventory Budgeted production = 252,000 + 19,700 - 13,700Budgeted production = 258,000 units. Therefore, the budgeted production (in units) for 2016 is 258,000 units.
Production Budget:It is a budget that estimates the production and corresponding costs of those units for a certain period. It shows the number of units that must be produced to meet sales needs and finish with a desired level of inventory. Harbour Inc. has projected sales of 252,000 personal journals for 2016. The estimated January 1, 2016, inventory is 13,700 units, and the desired December 31, 2016, inventory is 19,700 units. The budgeted production (in units) for 2016 is as follows: Budgeted production = Total Sales + Desired ending inventory - Beginning inventory Budgeted production = 252,000 + 19,700 - 13,700Budgeted production = 258,000 unitsTherefore, the budgeted production (in units) for 2016 is 258,000 units.
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Diaz and Associates incurred the following direct labor costs in completing tax services job for a client. Diaz applies overhead at 60% of direct labor cost. Bours Used Hourly Rate Direct Labor on Tax Job Partner 5 $ 540 Senior manager 16 160 Staff accountants 150 50 1. Determine the total cost of this tax services job. Estimated Cost Direct labor type Hours used Hourly rate Labor Cost Total Cost Total direct labor cost Overhead OH Base OH rate Estimated Applied Overhead Total cost 2. If Diaz charged $27,000 for this tax services job, what is the gross profit for the job? Gross Profit
The gross profit for the job is -$6,176.
The total cost of this tax services job can be calculated using the following formula:
Total direct labor cost = Partner's direct labor cost + Senior Manager's direct labor cost + Staff Accountants' direct labor cost
Total direct labor cost = (5 x $540) + (16 x $160) + (150 x $50)
Total direct labor cost = $2,700 + $2,560 + $7,500
Total direct labor cost = $12,760
Overhead cost = 60% of total direct labor cost
OH Base = Total direct labor cost + Overhead cost
OH Base = $12,760 + ($12,760 x 60%)OH Base = $12,760 + $7,656
OH Base = $20,416
Total cost = OH Base + Direct Labor Cost
Total cost = $20,416 + $12,760
Total cost = $33,176
Therefore, the total cost of this tax services job is $33,176.2. Gross profit can be calculated using the following formula:
Gross Profit = Revenue - Cost
Gross Profit = $27,000 - $33,176
Gross Profit = -$6,176
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If Little Caesars wants to determine the impact of different coupon offers on pizza unit sales, it needs to conduct
. exploratory research.
b. hypothesis development.
c. survey research.
d. stratified sampling.
e. experimental research
observes that Stephen Douglas received most of his vote from southern Democrats in the Election of 1860.
A. True
B.False
The statement is false. In the Election of 1860, Stephen Douglas was the nominee of the Democratic Party, but he did not receive most of his votes from southern Democrats.
Instead, Douglas had support primarily from northern and western Democrats. Southern Democrats, on the other hand, split their votes between John C. Breckinridge, who represented the Southern Democrats, and John Bell, the candidate of the Constitutional Union Party. The division within the Democratic Party played a significant role in the victory of Abraham Lincoln, the Republican candidate, who won the election without winning a single southern state.
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Using IS-LM and AD curve diagrams consider following policy mix strategies a) Expansionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy b) Expansionary fiscal policy and contractionary monetary policy c) Contractionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy d) Contractionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy
a) Expansionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy:
In this policy mix, both fiscal and monetary policies are expansionary. The IS-LM framework illustrates the impact as an upward shift in the IS curve due to increased government spending or decreased taxes, leading to higher output and income. Simultaneously, the LM curve shifts to the right due to the expansionary monetary policy, resulting in lower interest rates. The combined effect of these shifts is an increase in output and lower interest rates, leading to higher investment and consumption. Consequently, aggregate demand (AD) increases, resulting in higher output and potentially higher inflation.
b) Expansionary fiscal policy and contractionary monetary policy:
In this scenario, fiscal policy is expansionary, while monetary policy is contractionary. Expansionary fiscal policy causes the IS curve to shift upward, boosting output and income. However, the contractionary monetary policy leads to a leftward shift of the LM curve, resulting in higher interest rates. The conflicting effects of these policies create uncertainty in the overall impact. Output may increase, but the increase in interest rates could dampen investment and consumption, potentially affecting aggregate demand and economic growth.
c) Contractionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy:
When fiscal policy is contractionary, and monetary policy is expansionary, the IS curve shifts downward due to reduced government spending or increased taxes, leading to lower output and income. Conversely, the LM curve shifts to the right due to expansionary monetary policy, resulting in lower interest rates. The overall effect is a decrease in output and lower interest rates, which can stimulate investment and consumption. However, the magnitude of the impact on aggregate demand and economic growth depends on the relative strengths of fiscal and monetary policies.
d) Contractionary fiscal policy and expansionary monetary policy:
In this policy mix, fiscal policy is contractionary, and monetary policy is expansionary. The IS curve shifts downward due to reduced government spending or increased taxes, leading to lower output and income. However, the expansionary monetary policy causes the LM curve to shift to the right, resulting in lower interest rates. The combined effect of these shifts can partially offset the contractionary impact of fiscal policy, potentially mitigating the decrease in output. The impact on aggregate demand and economic growth depends on the relative strengths of the fiscal and monetary measures implemented.
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Lean is an adoption of the lean manufacturing practices of Japanese automakers Honda and Toyota to software engineering. Which statement is false about Lean? a. If it does not add value as perceived by the costumer to the product it is a waste
b. Build integrity
c. Decide as soon as possible
d. Deliver as fast as possible
Statement b. "Build integrity" is false about Lean. In the context of Lean, the concept of "build integrity" is not a primary focus.
Lean methodology primarily emphasizes the elimination of waste, continuous improvement, and delivering value to the customer. While quality and integrity are important aspects, they are not specifically highlighted as separate principles in Lean.
The core principle of Lean is to deliver value by eliminating waste and focusing on customer needs. This means that any activity or process that does not directly contribute to customer value is considered wasteful and should be minimized or eliminated.
While integrity is an important aspect of software engineering, it is not specifically mentioned as a principle or objective in the context of Lean software development. The core principles of Lean software development focus on delivering value, eliminating waste, and optimizing flow, among others.
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Which of the following is a requirement for a valid acceptance? a Manifestation of intent to be bound by the acceptance of the contract. b Agreement to the definite and certain terms of the offer. c Communication to the offeror. d Manifestation of intent to be bound by the acceptance of the contract, agreement to the definite and certain terms of the offer, and communication of that to the offeror. e Manifestation of intent to be bound by the acceptance to the contract and communication of a counteroffer to the offeror along with a writing specifying all pertinent terms.
The correct answer is option d: Manifestation of intent to be bound by the acceptance of the contract, agreement to the definite and certain terms of the offer, and communication of that to the offeror.
For a valid acceptance to occur, it typically requires the following elements:
Manifestation of intent: The accepting party must express a clear intention to be bound by the terms of the contract. This can be done through words, conduct, or other actions that indicate a willingness to enter into a contractual agreement.
Agreement to definite and certain terms: The acceptance must be based on the exact terms presented in the offer. The accepting party must agree to all the essential terms and conditions without introducing new or different terms.
Communication to the offeror: The acceptance must be communicated to the party making the offer. The offeror must be made aware of the acceptance in order for the contract to be formed. Communication can be done through various means, such as in person, by phone, in writing, or electronically.
Option d includes all three of these requirements: manifestation of intent, agreement to the definite and certain terms, and communication to the offeror.
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The Non-Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement is used only when a (a) broker refuses to sign an exclusive contract (b) buyer refuses to sign an exclusive contract (c) property is not exclusive to the buyer (d) seller refuses to sign an exclusive contract form is used. 2. If the listing agent is also the agent of the buyer, the O (a) Non-Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement (b) Limited Agency Consent Agreement (c) Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement (d) For Sale by owner Commission Agreement 3. Large companies can use their own form if they are prepared by (a) an agent (b) a broker (C) an attorney (d) a brokerage firm 4. The For Sale by owner Commission Agreement replaces the (a) Non-Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement (b) single-party listing used with "for sale by owner properties" (c) multiple-party listings (d) Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement 5. If a brokerage firm wants its own Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement form, the brokerage firm can (a) prepare the form (b) create and draft the form (C) submit a request to the state O (d) hire an attorney to draft the form 6. The Limited Agency Consent Agreement is used if O (a) one agent in the one office took the listing, and a different agent in a different office has the contract with the buyer. In this case, only the broker/branch broker is a limited agent (b) one broker in the office took the listing, and a different agent from a different office has the contract with the buyer. In this case, only the broker/branch broker is a limited agent O (C) the seller has a limited agent (d) one agent in the office took the listing, and a different agent has the contract with the buyer. In this case, only the broker/branch broker is a limited agent 7. The form helps avoid limited agency if the agent already has a buyer contract. O (a) Seller-Broker Agreement O (b) For Sale by owner Commission Agreement O (c) Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement (d) Non-Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement 8. The form is rarely used. (a) For Sale by owner Commission Agreement (b) Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement (C) Non-Exclusive Seller-Broker Agreement (d) Non-Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement Help
Agreement is signed between a buyer and a broker. It gives the broker the exclusive right to represent the buyer in the purchase of a property.8. The form is rarely used. (c) Non-Exclusive Seller-Broker Agreement. The seller and broker sign the agreement that sets the commission for selling the property.
The Non-Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement is used only when (a) a broker refuses to sign an exclusive contract. This contract gives buyers the freedom to use any number of brokerage firms and pay only the broker that brings the property to closing. The broker doesn't have the right to claim a commission from the buyer unless they find a property and that property is purchased.2. If the listing agent is also the agent of the buyer, the Limited Agency Consent Agreement (b) is used. It is used when a buyer and seller are both represented by agents from the same brokerage. This contract protects the buyer and seller from conflict of interest.3. Large companies can use their own form if they are prepared by (c) an attorney. An attorney is usually hired to prepare custom forms by large brokerage firms. The attorney who prepares the form must be familiar with the real estate laws of that state.4. The For Sale by owner Commission Agreement replaces the (a) Non-Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement. This form is used when the seller is selling the property themselves and wants to offer a commission to the agent that finds the buyer.5. If a brokerage firm wants its own Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement form, the brokerage firm can (d) hire an attorney to draft the form. An attorney can be hired to prepare any custom form that is needed by a brokerage firm. The attorney will ensure that the form is legal in that state.6. The Limited Agency Consent Agreement is used if (b) one broker in the office took the listing, and a different agent from a different office has the contract with the buyer. In this case, only the broker/branch broker is a limited agent.7. The form helps avoid limited agency if the agent already has a buyer contract. (c) Exclusive Buyer-Broker Agreement. This agreement is signed between a buyer and a broker. It gives the broker the exclusive right to represent the buyer in the purchase of a property.8. The form is rarely used. (c) Non-Exclusive Seller-Broker Agreement. The seller and broker sign the agreement that sets the commission for selling the property.
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Directions
Consider and explain the political, legal and technical environment dimensions facing Hitachi, when referring to the "Internet Exercise: Hitachi Goes Worldwide" on page 69 in the textbook. Complete this assignment by answering the following questions: 1) What kind of products and systems does the firm offer? What are its primary areas of emphasis? 2) In what types of environments does it operate? Is Hitachi primarily interested in developed markets, or is it also pushing into newly emerging markets? 3) Based on what it has been doing over the last two to three years, what do you think Hitachi’s future strategy will be in competing in the environment of international business?
Hitachi is a Japanese company that is a well-known player in the international business environment. In its operations, the firm deals with a wide range of products and systems in various industries. Hitachi has been involved in different kinds of political, legal, and technical environments that have influenced its business operations.
These are some of the dimensions that face Hitachi:
Political environment: Hitachi operates in various countries that have different political systems.
Therefore, the firm has to be keen on the political systems and regulations of these countries to ensure that it complies with all the required standards and avoids penalties.
Hitachi has been able to comply with different political systems, which has allowed it to expand its operations into various countries.
Legal environment: Every country has its unique legal system that regulates the operations of businesses.
Hitachi has been able to navigate through different legal systems that have influenced its operations.
The company's ability to comply with different legal requirements has enabled it to operate in different countries around the world.
Technical environment: Hitachi offers various systems and products that require technical expertise.
The company has been able to acquire different technological capabilities that have allowed it to remain competitive in different markets.
The company's investment in research and development has allowed it to come up with innovative solutions that have enabled it to grow its business.
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Commercial cookery/ kitchen:
a) Provide two (2) examples of networking activities and outline (2) benefits of sharing information gained from these activities with your team.
b) Provide two (2) examples of how you could represent your team’s interests during networking activities.
Networking activities in a commercial cookery/kitchen can include attending industry events and joining professional associations. Sharing information gained from these activities benefits the team by fostering knowledge exchange and staying updated with industry trends. Representing the team's interests in networking activities can be done through active participation and advocating for the team's needs and goals.
Attending industry events is a networking activity that provides opportunities to connect with professionals from the culinary industry. These events can include conferences, trade shows, or culinary competitions. By participating in these events, professionals can network with colleagues, learn about the latest industry trends, and gain insights into innovative practices. Sharing the information gained from these activities with the team benefits everyone by fostering knowledge exchange and keeping the team updated with industry developments, enabling them to adapt and improve their own practices. Another networking activity is joining professional associations related to commercial cookery/kitchen. These associations provide a platform for professionals to connect, collaborate, and share knowledge and resources. Being a member of such associations can offer access to educational resources, networking events, and industry publications.
Sharing the information gathered from these networking activities with the team benefits them by providing valuable resources, industry best practices, and potential networking opportunities. It promotes continuous learning within the team and helps them stay informed about industry advancements. Representing the team's interests during networking activities can be done by actively participating in discussions and sharing the team's achievements and challenges. For example, when attending industry events, professionals can engage in conversations with other attendees, highlighting the team's accomplishments, unique approaches, and specific needs. Additionally, participating in panel discussions or workshops allows professionals to voice their concerns, seek advice, and advocate for the team's needs and goals. By actively representing the team's interests during networking activities, professionals can establish stronger connections, gain support from industry peers, and potentially open doors to collaborations or partnerships that benefit the team and the overall success of the commercial cookery/kitchen operations.
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1- Neil recently obtained his Florida sales associates license. He then decides to open his own office and hire four sales associates to work under him. Neil and his four sales associates agree to split any commissions earned by the four associates 50/50. Has Neil violated any licensing laws?
A - Yes. As a sales associate himself, Neil is only permitted to take up to 25% of the commissions earned from other sales associates.
B - No. If a sales associate runs their own office, they are permitted by law to hire up to four sales associates to work under them.
C - Yes. Only licensed real estate brokers can open their own office and hire sales associates to work under them.
D - No. All of Neil's actions are permitted under state law.
2 - The real estate tax bill in Florida is a combination of ad valorem taxes and non-ad valorem assessments. A non-ad valorem assessment is a special assessment or service charge which is not based on the value of the property. Which of the following best describes the basis for ad valorem taxes?
A - Income value
B - Just value
C - Cost value
D - Replacement value
3 - Anthony is interested in becoming a licensed real estate professional in Florida. He knows that he must obtain his Florida real estate sales associate's license; however, in order to complete his license application, he must do which of the following?
A - Become a member of the National Association of Realtors.
B - He must first work as an assistant to a licensed Florida real estate broker.
C - Have a licensed Florida real estate broker employ him.
D - Have a licensed Florida real estate broker associate employ him.
4 - After an audit, the broker was charged with a violation of the Federal Fair Housing Act. What was the likely cause for the charge?
A - Failure to display an Equal Housing Opportunity Poster.
B - No records showing minorities buying homes through the brokerage.
C - Only one male sales associate on the company roster.
D - Inadequately signed handicapped parking places.
5 - If unauthorized practice of law is considered to be the practice of law by someone who has not been licensed to practice law, which of the following could present legal problems for a sales associate?
A - Offering an opinion on the title on a property.
B - Discussing a home value based upon comparables in the area.
C - Suggesting that the buyer contact an attorney to add clauses to the contract.
D - Offering to be with the buyer at the closing.
6 - Arthur recently selected a broker to sell his house. Arthur and the broker are now in the process of finalizing the listing agreement. How should Arthur determine how much he should pay the broker as a commission?
A - A listing broker is not entitled to a commission.
B - The commission must be between 6% of the sales price as per NAR guidelines.
C - Arthur must negotiate with the broker until both parties agree to a commission.
D - The commission must be set to 6% of the sales price as dictated by FREC.
1- Answer: A - Yes. As a sales associate himself, Neil is only permitted to take up to 25% of the commissions earned from other sales associates.
Neil has violated licensing laws by agreeing to split commissions 50/50 with his sales associates. As a sales associate, he is only allowed to receive up to 25% of the commissions earned from other sales associates.
This restriction is in place to prevent individuals from operating as a broker without obtaining a broker's license.
By taking more than the allowable amount, Neil is acting as a broker and thus violating licensing laws.
2- Answer: B - Just value
The basis for ad valorem taxes in Florida is Just value. This means that the taxable value of the property is based on the current fair market value.
Just value is determined by considering several factors, including the property's location, size, and overall condition.
Non-ad valorem assessments, on the other hand, are not based on the value of the property and are instead a fixed charge for specific services provided by the local government.
Overall, the combination of ad valorem taxes and non-ad valorem assessments make up the real estate tax bill in Florida, which is paid annually by property owners.
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Help to discussed and defined the types of business structures
along with their advantages and disadvantages. Using the Business Structure Chart template
provided, fill in the definitions and advant
Business structure refers to the legal arrangement by which a business is formed, governed, and owned. A business structure outlines how a business is established, managed, and owned. Business structure defines the nature of business, ownership, management, and liability.
The following are the types of business structures:
1. Sole Proprietorship
A sole proprietorship is the simplest form of business organization. A sole proprietorship is a business owned by a single person, and it's the most common type of business. The sole proprietor has complete control over the business and its operations. The owner is solely responsible for the company's debts and obligations.
Advantages of Sole Proprietorship
i. The sole proprietor has complete control over the business.
ii. The proprietor enjoys all profits.
iii. The sole proprietorship is the simplest and easiest to set up.
iv. No tax filings are required.
Disadvantages of Sole Proprietorship
i. Unlimited liability
ii. Lack of continuity
iii. Limited ability to raise capital
2. Partnership
A partnership is a business organization where two or more individuals own and operate the company. A partnership can be general or limited. In a general partnership, all partners have equal responsibility for managing the company. In a limited partnership, some partners are limited in their ability to manage the business.
Advantages of Partnership
i.More capital is available.
ii. Shared responsibilities and risks.
iii. Shared expertise
iv. No tax filings are required.
Disadvantages of Partnership
i. Unlimited liability
ii. The possibility of disputes
iii. Lack of continuity
iv. Difficulty in raising capital
3. Corporation
A corporation is a legal entity that is owned by shareholders. The corporation is managed by a board of directors. Shareholders of the corporation are not personally liable for the company's debts and obligations.
Advantages of Corporation
i. Limited liability
ii. Perpetual existence
iii. Ability to raise capital
iv. Transferability of ownership
Disadvantages of Corporation
i. Double taxation
ii. More regulation
iii. More expensive to set up
4. Limited Liability Company (LLC)
A limited liability company is a hybrid form of business organization that combines the limited liability of a corporation with the pass-through taxation of a partnership or sole proprietorship.
Advantages of Limited Liability Company
i. Limited liability
ii. Pass-through taxation
iii. Ability to raise capital
iv. Flexibility in management
Disadvantages of Limited Liability Company
i. More expensive to set up
ii. Lack of continuity
iii. More regulation
iv. Difficulty in raising capital.
Therefore, these are the types of business structures and their advantages and disadvantages.
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Old MathJax webview
LOOKING AHEAD of Pfizer acquisition over Medivation 2016.
1. Has the Buyer positioned itself wisely in relation to its industry for future value creation? Discuss your reasoning.
2. What are some major changes in strategic direction the Buyer firm could make to improve its current performance and prospects?
3. What must buyer still do to make this acquisition successful?
it's the case of Pfizer acquisition over Medivation company in 2016, for more details we have to search for the data from online.
so the buyer is Pfizer, Pfizer bought Medivation company...
1. Pfizer's acquisition of Medivation was a strategic move that positioned the company well for future value creation. Medivation is a leading developer of cancer drugs, and its products have a strong track record of success. The acquisition gives Pfizer a significant presence in the cancer drug market, which is a growing and lucrative market.
What is business acquisition?Business acquisition, also known as an acquisition or takeover, refers to the process of one company acquiring another company, either through a purchase of its assets or its controlling ownership stakes (such as stocks or shares).
2. Pfizer could make a number of major changes in strategic direction to improve its current performance and prospects. These changes could include:
Investing more in research and development.Expanding into new markets.3. Pfizer must still do a number of things to make its acquisition of Medivation successful. These things include:
Integrating Medivation's operations into Pfizer's operations. This will be a complex and challenging process, but it is essential to the success of the acquisition.Leveraging Medivation's assets and capabilities.Pfizer's acquisition of Medivation is a significant event that has the potential to create significant value for the company. However, Pfizer must still do a number of things to make the acquisition successful.
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