3. Figure ABCD Shown below is
made up of a semlore and a
rectangle. O is the contre of the
line DC
(Use
- )
10 cm
Calculate the area of
anglo AOB​

Answer:

The volume of cone = Maximum holding of glass = 60 cube cm(cm^3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Cone formula:

[tex] v = \frac{1}{3} \pi \: r {}^{2} h[/tex]

The radius is 3cm and Volume is 60cm^3.

if pi =~ 3 So the "h" is 6.66 cm.

"h" is distance from cone's head to its base.

The "H"( height of glass) = 6.66 + 7 = 13.6 =~ 14

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  13.4 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of the cone is given by ...

  V = 1/3πr²h

For the given dimensions, we have ...

  60 cm³ = 1/3π(3 cm)²h

  20/π cm = h ≈ 6.37 cm . . . . . . . . . . . divide by the coefficient of h

The overall height of the glass, H, is 7 cm more than the value of h.

  H = 7 cm +6.4 cm = 13.4 cm

The height of the glass is 13.4 cm.

Answer:

[tex]\dfrac{17}{13}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that,

r(x) = 3x - 1 and s(x) =  2x + 1

We need to find an expression equivalent to [tex]\dfrac{r}{s}(6)[/tex].

We know that,

[tex]\dfrac{r}{s}(6)=\dfrac{r(6)}{s(6)}[/tex]

Put x = 6 in the above expression

[tex]=\dfrac{3(6)-1}{2(6)+1}\\\\=\dfrac{18-1}{12+1}\\\\=\dfrac{17}{13}[/tex]

So, the equivalent expression is equal to [tex]\dfrac{17}{13}[/tex].

Answer:

-1 and 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answer:

-1 and 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the principle amount

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know how to explain it without an analogy so...

If a loan is charging a  10% interest amount of a $120 loan than the interest would be $12.

You multiply the interest rate by the total amount and that's how you find the amount of money you make off of interest.

(The total amount and principle amount are the same thing)

Answer:

P= -3

X= -18

Y= -7

S= -70

B= -9

M= -5

N= 0

Q= -22

The second slide's answers are attached to this message as a pic ;)

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it was helpful dear ;)

Answer:

rate of the current = 2 km/hr

Step-by-step explanation:

d = rt

Let c = rate of the current

Rate of boat downstream = 10 + c

Time going downstream = 24/(10 + c)

Rate of boat upstream = 10 - c

Time going upstream = 24/(10 - c)

Since the total time is 5 hr, then

24/(10 + c) + 24/(10 - c) = 5

24(10 - c) + 24(10 + c) = 5(10 + c)(10 - c)

240 - 24c + 240 + 24c = 500 - 5c^2

480 = 500 - 5c^2

5c^2 = 20

c^2 = 4

c = 2  or  -2

Since a rate cannot be negative, the rate of the current = 2 km/hr

Answer:

0.32

Step-by-step explanation:

Equation: 16/(2(25)) = ?

Simplify: 16/50

Solve: .32

There are 0.32 ounces of chocolate in each cookie.

There were 0.64 pounds of Choco chips in each cookie.

Unit rate is a rate with 1 as the denominator. A rate is a ratio used to compare different amounts of different quantities that are somehow related.

Given that, Darla made 25 cookies with 16 pounds of Choco chips, we need to find the amount of Choco chips used in each cookie,

So,

16 pounds for 25 cookies

Therefore,

1 cookie = 16/25 pounds

1 cookie = 0.64

Hence, there were 0.64 pounds of Choco chips in each cookie.

Learn more about unit rate, click;

https://brainly.com/question/29781084

#SPJ2

from the pic above, hope it helps you

Answer:

isosceles triangle

Step-by-step explanation:

2 sides the same

Answer:

C. 0.10

Step-by-step explanation:

Conditional Probability

We use the conditional probability formula to solve this question. It is

[tex]P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}[/tex]

In which

P(B|A) is the probability of event B happening, given that A happened.

[tex]P(A \cap B)[/tex] is the probability of both A and B happening.

P(A) is the probability of A happening.

In this question:

Event A: Goes to the city playoffs

Event B: Goes to the state playoffs.

In Littletown, the probability that a baseball team goes to the city playoffs is 0.20.

This means that [tex]P(A) = 0.2[/tex]

The probability that the team goes to the state playoffs given that the team goes to the city playoffs is 0.50.

This means that [tex]P(B|A) = 0.5[/tex]

What is the probability that a randomly selected team from Littletown goes to the city and state playoffs?

This is [tex]P(A \cap B)[/tex]. So

[tex]P(B|A) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(A)}[/tex]

[tex]P(A \cap B) = P(A)*P(B|A) = 0.2*0.5 = 0.1[/tex]

The correct answer is given by option C.

Answer:

The regression equation for the winter rainy days is "Humidity = (β0 + β5) + β1Temperature".

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Humidity = β0 + β1Temperature + β2Spring + β3Summer + β4Fall + β5Rain + ε ...........(1)

Since there can be only one of spring, summer,fall, and winter at a point in time or in a season, we will have the following when there are winter rainy days:

Spring = 0

Summer = 0

Fall = 0

Rain = 1

Substituting all the relevant values into equation (1) and equating ε also to 0, a reduced form of equation (1) can be obtained as follows:

Humidity = β0 + β1Temperature + (β2 * 0) + (β3 * 0) + (β4 * 0) + (β5 * 1) + 0

Humidity = β0 + β1Temperature + 0 + 0 + 0 + β5 + 0

Humidity = (β0 + β5) + β1Temperature

Therefore, the regression equation for the winter rainy days is "Humidity = (β0 + β5) + β1Temperature".

The regression equation for winter rainy days is  

Humidity = β0 + β5 + β1Temperature

The regression model is given as:

Humidity = β0 + β1Temperature + β2Spring + β3Summer + β4Fall + β5Rain + ε

To determine the regression equation for winter rainy days, we consider that:

[tex]Rain = 1[/tex]

This also means that:

[tex]Spring = 0[/tex]

[tex]Summer = 0[/tex]

[tex]Fall = 0[/tex]

ε = 0

Because each of these seasons can only happen one at a time, and the current season is winter

So, the regression equation becomes

Humidity = β0 + β1Temperature + (β2 * 0) + (β3 * 0) + (β4 * 0) + (β5 * 1) + 0

Evaluate the products

Humidity = β0 + β1Temperature + 0 + 0 + 0 + β5 + 0

The sum of 0 is 0. So, we have:

Humidity = β0 + β1Temperature + β5

Rewrite as:

Humidity = β0 + β5 + β1Temperature

Hence, the regression equation for winter rainy days is  

Humidity = β0 + β5 + β1Temperature

Read more about regression equations at:

https://brainly.com/question/13762426

Answer:

pentagon

regular polygon

Step-by-step explanation:

A regular polygon is an n-sided polygon in which the sides are all the same length and are symmetrically placed about a common center

A. 43.96in?

Answer:5/6=25/blank

Step-by-step explanation:so 5/6 the top is times five forget the bottom for now just think of 5 and 25

[5x5] equals 25 so you already got the top

now for the bottom since you multiply the top by five you have to do that to the bottom so that will be    [6x5] that equals 30 so you got your answer

[25/30]

Answer:

(1,5)

Step-by-step explanation:

x:

6-5=1

y:

7-2=5

Answer:

it c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Sum is addition

1015+119 = 1134

Answer:

2) 49

3) 8

4) 85

Hope you still need them and that they are correct!

Answer:

Only 60 is an identified outlier

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Age group: 40 to 50

[tex]Min = 60[/tex]           [tex]Q_1 = 70[/tex]           [tex]Median= 73[/tex]

[tex]Q_3 = 76[/tex]              [tex]Max = 85[/tex]

Conditions for outlier

[tex]Value > Q_3 + 1.5 * IQR[/tex]

[tex]Value < Q_1 - 1.5 * IQR[/tex]

See attachment for complete question

Required

Which of 60, 62 and 84 is an outlier of age grout 40 to 50 years

First, calculate the IQR of group 40 to 50.

This is calculated as:

[tex]IQR = Q_3 - Q_1[/tex]

Where:

[tex]Q_3 = 76[/tex] and [tex]Q_1 = 70[/tex]

So:

[tex]IQR = 76 - 70[/tex]

[tex]IQR = 6[/tex]

Next, is to test the outlier conditions on each value (i.e. 60, 62 and 84)

Testing 60

Condition 1

[tex]Value > Q_3 + 1.5 * IQR[/tex]

[tex]60 > 76 + 1.5 * 6[/tex]

[tex]60 > 76 + 9[/tex]

[tex]60 > 85[/tex] --- False

Condition 2

[tex]Value < Q_1 - 1.5 * IQR[/tex]

[tex]60 < 70 - 1.5 * 6[/tex]

[tex]60 < 70 - 9[/tex]

[tex]60 < 61[/tex] --- True

Because one of the conditions is true, then 60 is an outlier of group 40 - 50 years

Testing 62

Condition 1

[tex]Value > Q_3 + 1.5 * IQR[/tex]

[tex]62> 76 + 1.5 * 6[/tex]

[tex]62 > 76 + 9[/tex]

[tex]62 > 85[/tex] --- False

Condition 2

[tex]Value < Q_1 - 1.5 * IQR[/tex]

[tex]62 < 70 - 1.5 * 6[/tex]

[tex]62 < 70 - 9[/tex]

[tex]62 < 61[/tex] --- False

Because both conditions are false, then 62 is  not an outlier of group 40 - 50 years

Testing 84

Condition 1

[tex]Value > Q_3 + 1.5 * IQR[/tex]

[tex]84> 76 + 1.5 * 6[/tex]

[tex]84 > 76 + 9[/tex]

[tex]84 > 85[/tex] --- False

Condition 2

[tex]Value < Q_1 - 1.5 * IQR[/tex]

[tex]84 < 70 - 1.5 * 6[/tex]

[tex]84 < 70 - 9[/tex]

[tex]84 < 61[/tex] --- False

Because both conditions are false, then 84 is  not an outlier of group 40 - 50 years

Answer:

x = 28°

I hope it's helps you

Answer:

X=28

Step-by-step explanation:

(4x+3)+(2x+9)=180

6x+12=180

6x=168

X=28

Answer: Expanded Notation Form:

300 + 70 + 2 + 0.3= 372.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

176

Step-by-step explanation:

The Inscribed Angle Theorem states that the measure of an inscribed angle is half the measure of its intercepted arc.

SO JML is 88*2

Answer:

0.0314 = 3.14% probability that it takes at most 1 hour of machining time to produce a randomly selected component

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution:

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Sum of normal variables:

When normal variables are added, the mean is the sum of the means while the standard deviation is the square root of the sum of the variances.

The mean values are 20, 15, and 30 min, respectively:

This means that [tex]\mu = 20 + 15 + 30 = 65[/tex]

The standard deviations are 1, 2, and 1.5 min, respectively.

This means that [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{1^2 + 2^2 + 1.5^2} = 2.6926[/tex]

What is the probability that it takes at most 1 hour of machining time to produce a randomly selected component?

Mean and standard deviation are in minutes, so this is the pvalue of Z when X = 60.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{60 - 65}{2.6926}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1.86[/tex]

[tex]Z = -1.86[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.0314

0.0314 = 3.14% probability that it takes at most 1 hour of machining time to produce a randomly selected component

Answer:x=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

3 x -2^2

3 x -4 = -12

Answer:

[tex]3 {x}^{2} = - 12 \\ {x}^{2} = - 12 \div 3 \\ {x}^{2} = - 4 \\ x = \sqrt{ - 4 } \\ x = \frac{ + }{} 2[/tex]

Option D, hope it helps!